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Daily Prelims MCQs — Polity — 24th July 2025

  • Writer: TPP
    TPP
  • Jul 24
  • 8 min read
Daily Prelims MCQs — Polity — 24th July 2025

Welcome to today’s handpicked set of Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) from the Polity — crafted specially for the UPSC Prelims! These questions aren’t just a quiz — they’re a smart way to see how current affairs connect with core concepts, just like UPSC asks in the exam.

Each question is based on recent news and backed by clear explanations to help you build strong links between dynamic events and static knowledge.

Today’s topics include: maritime legal conflicts, members of the Rajya Sabha, Election Commission of India, Indian Parliament, Zonal Councils in India and more…


Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).


QUESTION 1

With regard to maritime legal conflicts in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Maritime damage claims involving ships are not eligible for filing under admiralty suits.

  2. The Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017 is the principal legislation for addressing maritime disputes in India.

  3. Admiralty suits can be instituted for issues including ship ownership disputes, contractual disagreements, fatalities at sea, crew wage claims, and marine environmental harm.

How many of the above statements are accurate?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (b)

Explanation:

Recently, the Kerala High Court conditionally ordered the "arrest" of the Liberian container vessel MSC Akiteta II, currently docked at Vizhinjam Port near Thiruvananthapuram. This action was initiated following a compensation plea concerning the sinking of MSC Elsa III in May. The Kerala government had filed an admiralty suit in the High Court, targeting the Mediterranean Shipping Company, which manages the MSC Akiteta II. The MSC Elsa III, although run by another affiliate in the same group, was central to the claim.

The Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017 serves as the contemporary legal framework for such maritime matters, replacing older British-era statutes such as the Admiralty Court Act, 1861 and the Colonial Courts of Admiralty Act, 1890.

The 2017 Act explicitly allows admiralty suits for a variety of maritime claims, including:

  • Damage to ships (contrary to Statement 1),

  • Disputes over ownership or contractual agreements,

  • Loss of life or injury at sea,

  • Unpaid wages for maritime workers, and

  • Environmental degradation due to marine operations.

Therefore:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect, since damage to ships can be the basis of admiralty suits.

  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Additionally, the jurisdiction of admiralty courts in India extends to territorial waters — defined as extending 12 nautical miles from the nearest low-water mark on the coast — including the seabed, subsoil, and the airspace above.

 

QUESTION 2

Examine the following two statements in the context of legislative powers under the Indian Constitution:

Statement 1: In ordinary situations, Parliament does not have the authority to enact laws on matters listed in the State List.

Statement 2: If the Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution—by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting—asserting that it is in the national interest, then Parliament acquires the power to legislate on the specified subject.

Which of the following options is accurate regarding these statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true, and Statement 2 explains Statement 1 correctly.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true, but Statement 2 does not serve as the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false.

(d) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true.

Answer (a)

Explanation:

The Indian Constitution provides a clear distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States, classified under three distinct lists:

  • Union List

  • State List

  • Concurrent List

Normally, the Parliament is not permitted to legislate on matters exclusively mentioned in the State List. This ensures the autonomy of states in their legislative domain.

However, Article 249 of the Constitution provides an exception. If the Rajya Sabha, the Council of States, passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, the Parliament becomes authorized to legislate on that specific matter from the State List.

Such a resolution remains effective for one year from the date of its passage and can be renewed for additional one-year periods through similar resolutions.

Hence:

  • Statement 1 is correct — Parliament cannot generally legislate on State List matters.

  • Statement 2 is also correct — Article 249 enables Parliament to override this restriction under specific conditions.

  • Furthermore, Statement 2 serves as the direct constitutional explanation for Statement 1.

 

QUESTION 3

With reference to the nominated members of the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:

  1. The President nominates individuals to the Rajya Sabha who possess exceptional expertise or notable experience in fields such as literature, science, art, and social service.

  2. A nominated member must become affiliated with a political party within two months of assuming their seat in the Rajya Sabha.

  3. Nominated members are not entitled to participate in the election of the Vice-President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • The Constitution empowers the President of India to nominate individuals to the Rajya Sabha based on their distinguished contributions or expertise in specific areas: literature, science, art, and social service. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Regarding political affiliations, a nominated member is allowed a grace period of six months from the date of taking a seat in the Rajya Sabha to join a political party, if they wish. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Nominated members can vote in the Vice-Presidential election, although they are excluded from voting in the Presidential election. Thus, Statement 3 is also incorrect.

 

QUESTION 4

Which of the following are advantages enjoyed by political parties that are registered with the Election Commission of India?

  1. Such parties have the potential to attain the status of a State Party or National Party, provided they meet the eligibility norms set by the Election Commission.

  2. A party recognised as a National Party is granted exclusive rights to its reserved election symbol for all candidates it fields across the country.

  3. Recognised State and National parties receive two complimentary copies of the electoral rolls and are also granted access to broadcast and telecast time slots on Akashvani and Doordarshan during general elections.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • In a case concerning the registration status of the All India Majlis-e-Ittehadul Muslimeen (AIMIM), the Supreme Court declined to revoke its registration on the grounds of alleged community-based politics but allowed broader legal challenges in future cases that may deal with the misuse of caste, communal, or regional identities in politics.

  • As per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, a party registered with the Election Commission becomes eligible for recognition as a State Party or National Party upon meeting specific performance criteria in elections. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Recognition as a National Party entitles it to exclusive use of its reserved symbol across all states in India, while State Parties enjoy this right within their respective states. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

  • Recognised State and National parties also enjoy certain electoral privileges: they can file nominations with just one proposer, are provided two free sets of electoral rolls, and gain access to free broadcasting and telecasting time on Akashvani and Doordarshan during general elections. So, statement 3 is also correct.

 

QUESTION 5

The following description refers to a specific legislative instrument in the Indian Parliament:

A type of Money Bill introduced annually (or at intervals during the financial year) that enables the withdrawal or appropriation of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India. This includes sums approved by the Lok Sabha through voting as well as amounts charged directly to the Consolidated Fund, for meeting the expenditures of an entire financial year or a portion thereof.

This description pertains to which of the following?

(a) Repealing and Amending Bill

(b) Finance Bill Category II

(c) Private Member’s Bill

(d) Appropriation Bill

Answer (d)

Explanation:

  • The Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill that facilitates the formal authorization of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

  • It includes both:

    • Expenditures voted by the Lok Sabha (i.e. through Demand for Grants), and

    • Expenditures charged directly on the Consolidated Fund (like salaries of constitutional authorities), which do not require voting.

  • It is introduced annually, typically after the General Budget, or at various intervals during the year to cover supplementary or excess grants.

  • This bill ensures legal clearance for the government to utilize funds for public services during a financial year or part thereof.

 

QUESTION 6

Who among the following are included in the electoral college responsible for electing the President of India?

  1. Elected Members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

  2. Elected Members of Legislative Assemblies of States, and of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry

  3. Nominated members of the Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies

  4. Members serving in State Legislative Councils

Select the correct option:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (b)

Explanation:

  • The President of India is chosen by an electoral college which comprises:

    • Elected Members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), and

    • Elected Members of the Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) of all States and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

  • The following categories are not included in the electoral college:

    • Nominated members of either House of Parliament or of State Legislative Assemblies,

    • Members of State Legislative Councils (as only Legislative Assemblies participate in the process).

Hence, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

QUESTION 7

Regarding the composition and leadership of Zonal Councils in India, which of the following statements is accurate?

(a) The Councils are chaired by the Prime Minister, and the Chief Minister of the largest member state acts as the Vice-Chairperson.

(b) The President presides over the Council meetings, with the Governor of a member state serving as Vice-Chairperson on a rotational basis.

(c) The Union Minister for Home Affairs serves as the Chairperson, while the Vice-Chairperson's role is rotated annually among the Chief Ministers of the participating states.

(d) The Chief Justice of India heads the Council, and a Minister from any member state is nominated as Vice-Chairperson.

Answer (c)

Explanation:

Zonal Councils in India are statutory bodies created to foster cooperation and coordination among states and between the Centre and states. Each Zonal Council is chaired by the Union Home Minister, who holds this position in an ex-officio capacity. The Vice-Chairmanship is held by the Chief Ministers of the states in the zone, and this role is rotated annually among them to ensure balanced representation.

 

QUESTION 8

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution does the Election Commission of India derive its authority to oversee and regulate the process of preparing electoral rolls?

(a) Article 326

(b) Article 327

(c) Article 324

(d) Article 329B

Answer (c)

Explanation:

Article 324 of the Constitution grants the Election Commission of India (ECI) the plenary powers of superintendence, direction, and control over the entire electoral process. This includes overseeing the preparation of electoral rolls for elections to both Parliament and state legislatures, as well as to the offices of the President and Vice President.


Previous Daily UPSC Prelims MCQs Set


Previous Week Current Affairs MCQs Set



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