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Daily Prelims MCQs — Current Affairs — 30th June 2025

  • Writer: TPP
    TPP
  • Jun 30
  • 13 min read
Daily Prelims MCQs — Current Affairs — 30th June 2025

Welcome to last week’s (23 June – 29 June) handpicked set of 15 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) curated from the most relevant and high-impact current affairs. Designed especially for UPSC Prelims preparation, these questions bridge the gap between dynamic news events and static concepts — just the way UPSC frames them in the exam.

Each question is backed by clear explanations and source references, helping you not only test your knowledge but also strengthen conceptual clarity and develop contextual understanding.

This set cover a wide range of topics including:  GI tag, weight loss drug, semaglutide and tirzepatide, docking, Axiom-4, Banakacherla reservoir plan, Emergency of 1975, International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), Ambubachi Mela, bunker buster, GBU-57 MOP, Gwada Negative, NATO Summit 2025 and more…

 

Use this as your daily revision boost to sharpen your understanding, stay exam-ready, and master how UPSC turns news into questions.

 

Click Here to read the Current Affairs Pointers (CAP) for January 2025- April 2025.

 

QUESTION 1

With reference to the geographical indication (GI) tag, consider the following statements:

1. A GI tag helps preserve traditional knowledge, cultural heritage, and the livelihoods of its local practitioners.

2. GI tags are transferable and can be licensed like trademarks.

3. A GI can be or become a generic name for a product.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (a)

Explanation:

  • Prada, the Italian luxury fashion business, caused quite a sensation when it had its models launch the men’s spring-summer collection for 2026 wearing leather slippers that looked startlingly similar to Kolhapuri chappals, open-toe, T-strap sandals that have been worn across India for centuries.

  • Kolhapuri chappals bear the geographical indication (GI) designation, which confirms that a product comes from a certain geographical area and has attributes or a reputation as a result of that origin.

  • A GI tag contributes to the preservation of traditional knowledge, cultural legacy, and local practitioners’ livelihoods. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

On what basis is a GI tag awarded?

  • The product must originate from a specific place and its quality, reputation, or characteristics must be essentially attributable to that geographical origin.

  • Detailed production methods, materials and quality benchmarks must be specified in the application.

  • Only those entities (for example, producer groups, associations, or cooperative societies) who are registered as authorized users can legally use the GI.

  • GI tags are non-transferable and cannot be licensed like trademarks. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Owners and governments are expected to monitor misuse and initiate legal action against counterfeiting or false usage.

  • A GI should not be or become a generic name for a product. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

 

QUESTION 2

Which of the following states has launched a project to boost the income of farmers by promoting the cultivation of Queen Pineapple?

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Sikkim

(d) Tripura          

Answer (d)

Explanation:

  • Tripura Agriculture Minister Ratan Lal Nath Friday announced a Rs 132 crore scheme to increase the income of farmers by increasing the cultivation of Queen Pineapple.

  • The Queen Pineapple has been granted the GI (Geographical Indication) designation. This certification emphasises the exceptional quality and individuality of the Queen type grown in the state.

  • This project has improved the branding and export potential of Tripura’s pineapple. It was also designated as the state fruit of Tripura in 2018,” said the minister.

 

QUESTION 3

The semaglutide and tirzepatide medicines are used for the treatment of:

(a) Cancer

(b) HIV

(c) Type-2 diabetes and obesity

(d) Tuberculosis

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • Novo Nordisk, a Danish pharmaceutical corporation, debuted its blockbuster weight-loss injectable semaglutide earlier this week, months after competitor Eli Lilly’s tirzepatide hit Indian markets — and nearly four years after these GLP-1 medicines swept the United States.

  • Semaglutide and tirzepatide are both GLP-1 (glucagon-like peptide-1) receptor agonists, which is a new class of medications. They are prescribed for the treatment of type 2 diabetes and obesity.

  • These medications, also known as incretin mimickers, mimic naturally occurring gut hormones called incretins (one of which is GLP-1).


QUESTION 4

The term “Docking” with reference to the space refers to:

(a) Where two spacecraft are parked at different positions in space.

(b) When a spacecraft changes its position to prevent collision with other spacecraft.

(c) Where two spacecraft moving at extremely high speeds but not relative to each other, are aligned in a precise orbit and joined together.

(d) When two spacecraft are launched together in the same orbit with different purposes.

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • The SpaceX Dragon spacecraft, carrying Indian astronaut Shubhanshu Shukhla and three others, has docked with the International Space Station (ISS).

  • Docking is the procedure by which two spacecraft, both flying at extremely high speeds but not relative to each other, are aligned in a precise orbit and connected together – a capacity required for connecting various modules in space to form a space station.

  • Docking is the technique by which two spacecraft connect in space. While this is a routine practice today—the ISS sees around a dozen space dockings each year—it is still a demanding technique that requires exceptional control and precision.


QUESTION 5

Consider the following projects:

1. A tunnel at Pir ki Gali

2. Sadhna tunnel

3. Stretch from Zaznar to Shopian

4. Resurfacing of the Trehgam-Chamkote road

The above-mentioned projects have been approved for:

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Jammu and Kashmir

(c) Uttarakhand

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer (b)

Explanation:

  • In a major infrastructure push for Jammu and Kashmir, the Centre approved 19 large road and tunnel projects totalling Rs 1,0637 crore. Two tunnel projects and two roadways are particularly essential.

  • While the Centre has approved 19 projects, including tunnels, highways, flyovers/elevated corridors, and bridges, four of them are high-value projects of strategic significance.

  • A tunnel at Pir ki Gali on the Srinagar-Shopian-Bafliaz-Jammu road; the Sadhna tunnel on the Kupwara-Karnah road; a 28-km road stretch from Zaznar to Shopian in south Kashmir; and the resurfacing of the 68-km Trehgam-Chamkote road.

 

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Banakacherla reservoir plan, consider the following statements:

1. This is the first step to enhance the Polavaram Right Main Canal’s capacity.

2. The Banakacherla reservoir project is meant to transform Andhra Pradesh’s drought-prone Rayalaseema region into a fertile land.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • Telangana Chief Minister A Revanth Reddy challenged former state CM and Bharat Rashtra Samithi (BRS) leader K Chandrashekar Rao to a debate in the state Assembly over the contentious Banakacherla reservoir project.

  • The Banakacherla reservoir project is meant to transform Andhra Pradesh’s drought-prone Rayalaseema region into a fertile land. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • According to the idea, the first phase would be to increase the capacity of the Polavaram Right Main Canal from 17,500 to 38,000 cusecs, allowing Godavari water to be transferred to Krishna. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Then, the canal capacity of the Thatipudi Lift Irrigation Scheme will be enhanced from 1,400 to 10,000 cusecs.

  • A reservoir will then be built in Bollapalli in Guntur district, from which water would be raised at a rate of 28,000 cusecs and sent to the Banakacherla reservoir. Lift stations will be built in Harischandrapuram, Lingapuram, Vyyandana, Gangireddypalem, and Nakirekallu to pump water into the Bollapalli reservoir. The water will subsequently be channelled to the Veligonda and Banakacherla reservoirs via a tunnel through the Nallamala forest.

 

QUESTION 7

Which of the following decisions were taken during the Emergency of 1975?

1. The federal structure was converted into a de facto unitary one.

2. Almost all opposition leaders were detained.

3. Fundamental rights, including the freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a), were curtailed.

4. Newspapers were subjected to pre-censorship.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (d)

Explanation:

  • The Emergency was declared precisely 50 years ago, on June 25, 1975. The 21-month period was one of the darkest episodes in the Indian republic’s history, with civil liberties suspended, press freedom curtailed, mass arrests, election cancellations, and rule by decree.

  • The Emergency, which lasted until March 21, 1977, saw the Indira Gandhi administration use extraordinary clauses in the Constitution to impose broad administrative and legislative effects on the country.

  • The federal structure was converted into a de facto unitary one. State governments were not suspended, but they were effectively brought entirely under the Centre’s control. Parliament made laws on subjects in the State List, and the President, with parliamentary approval, modified constitutional provisions on the allocation of financial resources between the Union and states. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Almost all opposition leaders, including JP, were imprisoned. Roughly 1.12 lakh people were detained under draconian laws like the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA), Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act (COFEPOSA), and Defence of India act and Defence of India rules (DISIR). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Fundamental rights, including the freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a), were curtailed. Newspapers were subjected to pre-censorship. Hence, statements 3 and 4 are correct.

 

QUESTION 8

With reference to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), consider the following statements:

1. It was created in 1957 in response to the deep fears and expectations generated by the discoveries and diverse uses of nuclear technology.

2. In 2005, the Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the Nobel Peace Prize to the International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • The attacks by the United States and Israel on Iran’s nuclear sites mark the first time any country’s operational nuclear facilities have been targeted to destroy them.

  • While Iran and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), the global nuclear watchdog, have reported no increase in radiation levels so far, other worries persist. These include concerns about the safety and whereabouts of nuclear material stored at the targeted facilities — Natanz, Isfahan and Fordow.


About IAEA

  • The IAEA was created in 1957 in response to the deep fears and expectations generated by the discoveries and diverse uses of nuclear technology. The Agency’s genesis was U.S. President Eisenhower’s “Atoms for Peace” address to the General Assembly of the United Nations on 8 December 1953. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • In 2005, the Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the Nobel Peace Prize to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and to its Director General, Mohamed ElBaradei, for their work for a safer and more peaceful world. The Committee honoured the IAEA and its leader “for their efforts to prevent nuclear energy from being used for military purposes and to ensure that nuclear energy for peaceful purposes is used in the safest possible way.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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QUESTION 9

The Ambubachi Mela, which is held during the monsoon, takes place in:

(a) Assam

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Karnataka

(d) Kerala

Answer (a)

Explanation:

  • Thousands of devotees have arrived in Assam for the Kamakhya Temple’s annual Ambubachi Mela, one of the largest religious gatherings in Northeast India.

  • The event takes place during the monsoon season, usually in June, at the Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati, which is a shrine to the Goddess Kamakhya and one of the most prominent Tantrik Shakti centres. The Ambubachi period is thought to correspond to the goddess’s annual menstruation, and the shrine is shuttered during this time. At the end of the period, the shrine’s doors are ceremonially opened, and devotees flock to see the deity. This year, the shrine will be shuttered from June 22 to June 25, and will reopen on June 26.

  • The event is associated with fertility, the beginning of the monsoon season, and the common historical connotation of a fertile woman among nations on Earth. The name ‘Ambubachi’ literally means “water flowing.”

 

QUESTION 10

With reference to the “bunker buster” MOP, consider the following statements:

1. It is designed to attack deeply-buried facilities and hardened bunkers and tunnels.

2. It is meant to destroy targets in well-protected facilities.

3. It is heavy and can only be dropped using the B-2 Spirit stealth bomber.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • US President Donald Trump announced that the US military had completed airstrikes on three Iranian installations, signalling a significant escalation in the ongoing war with Israel. The airstrike included Fordo, a key uranium enrichment complex that has escaped Israeli attacks thus far and is seen to be critical to Iran’s nuclear program.

  • Israel’s greatest chance of destroying the Fordo plant was a never-before-used American bomb, the GBU-57 Massive Ordnance Penetrator, or MOP, which is extraordinarily heavy and can only be dropped by the US Air Force’s B-2 Spirit stealth bomber aircraft. The most recent bombing appears to have met that goal, however the degree of the damage at Fordo remains unknown, owing to the depth of the enrichment site. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • The “bunker buster” MOP is intended to destroy targets in well-protected sites by attacking “deeply-buried facilities and hardened bunkers and tunnels”. Israel, or any country other than the United States, has no non-nuclear weapon systems capable of penetrating a site as deep as Fordo. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.


QUESTION 11

Which of the following straits lies between Oman and Iran, connecting the Gulf of Oman to the Persian Gulf and, beyond that, to the Arabian Sea?

(a) Strait of Hormuz

(b) Strait of Malacca

(c) Strait of Sicily

(d) Strait of Gibraltar

Answer (a)

Explanation:

  • The US military’s strike on three sites in Iran on June 22 deepened fears of a widening military conflict in the Middle East. There are concerns that Tehran could retaliate by trying to close the Strait of Hormuz, a vital global trade route.

  • The Strait of Hormuz lies between Oman and Iran, connecting the Gulf of Oman with the Persian Gulf, and the Arabian Sea beyond. The strait is about 33 kilometres wide at the narrowest point, though shipping traffic passes through a narrower traffic separation scheme (TSS), which consists of a 3-kilometre-wide channel each for inbound and outbound traffic. It is important for several reasons, but mostly because it is the world’s most important oil checkpoint, carrying about one-fifth of the world’s oil.


QUESTION 12

‘Gwada Negative’, recently seen in news, refers to:

(a) term used during an unsuccessful start of a space mission

(b) an international clause for ceasefire

(c) a new foul in the game of chess

(d) a new blood group

Answer (d)

Explanation:

  • More than a decade after a woman from Guadeloupe underwent routine blood tests before surgery, scientists in France have identified an entirely new blood group in her — the 48th ever discovered globally.

  • The French Blood Establishment (EFS), the country’s national blood transfusion agency, made the announcement on LinkedIn, calling it a “world first.” The new group, officially recognised this month by the International Society of Blood Transfusion, has been named “Gwada Negative” in reference to the woman’s Caribbean heritage.

 

QUESTION 13

Consider the following:

1. Agro-Meteorological Advisory Services (AAS)

2. Multi-Hazard Early Warning Systems (MHEWS)

3. Air Quality Early Warning System (AQEWS)

Which of the above given systems/services are related to the India Meteorological Department (IMD) ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

Explanation:

  • India’s primary agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting, and seismology celebrates its 150th year of establishment.

  • A critical advancement is the development of Multi-Hazard Early Warning Systems (MHEWS) that provide warnings about multiple hazards such as cyclones, flash floods, and other extreme weather events. The MHEWS, developed in collaboration with the IMD in partnership with the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and supported by Doppler Weather Radars (DWRs), has been crucial for India’s disaster risk reduction measures.

  • In the agricultural sector, the IMD’s Agro-Meteorological Advisory Services (AAS) delivers millions of farmers with useful information to better manage crops and adapt to various weather phenomena. The information from AAS is distributed at the block level through the Gramin Krishi Mausam Sewa (GKMS) scheme, ensuring the delivery of crucial information to millions of farmers across the country.

  • The IMD also operates the Air Quality Early Warning System (AQEWS), which provides information on daily pollution levels in major cities. This information is relied upon by governments at various levels to formulate policies on urban air pollution mitigation.

 

QUESTION 14

With reference to Union Government’s recent announcements, consider the following statements:

1. Bihar is set to become one of the first states in India to establish a nuclear power plant.

2. The Centre cleared a proposal to set up the South Asia regional centre of the Peru-based International Potato Center (CIP) in Mohali district of Punjab.

Which of the statements given above is/are true?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

Explanation:

  • Bihar will be among the first six states in India to get its first atomic plant under the country’s new Nuclear Energy Mission. On Tuesday, Union Power Minister Manohar Lal Khattar announced a Small Modular Reactor (SMR)-based nuclear power plant in the state following the Centre’s approval.

  • The announcement comes ahead of the assembly election in Bihar and comes after a meeting of eastern region power ministers, which included representatives from Bihar, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

 

QUESTION 15

With reference to NATO Summit 2025, consider the following statements:

1. Nato allies (the member nations) made the ambitious 5% GDP defence spending target which would be achieved entirely through core defence spending and weapons.

2. Spain announced it would not adhere to NATO’s defence spending target.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • Trump called the summit “a very historic milestone” as Nato allies (the member nations) made the ambitious 5% GDP defence spending target. He said the consensus was “something that no one really thought possible.

  • Of the 5% figure, 3.5% would be achieved entirely through core defence spending and weapons. The remaining 1.5% can be put towards “defence-related expenditure”, broadly referring to such infrastructural spending to “protect our critical infrastructure, defend our networks, ensure our civil preparedness and resilience, unleash innovation, and strengthen our defence industrial base”.

  • Allies (NATO members) would need to submit plans to meet the 5% figure annually and follow a “credible, incremental path”, with a review on progress expected after the 2029 US presidential election.

  • The 3.5% core defence spending target itself will be out of reach for several NATO countries, which have hovered around the previous 2% target. The US spent 3.2% of its GDP on defence spending in 2024, according to NATO estimates. Only three countries exceeded this share – Poland (4.1%), Estonia (3.4%) and Latvia (3.4%).

  • Spain, which had allocated 1.24% of its GDP in 2024 to defence spending, announced it would not adhere to this target, earning Trump’s ire and the potential for Spain-specific trade sanctions.

 

Previous Daily UPSC Prelims MCQs Set

 

Previous Week Current Affairs MCQs Set

 

 

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