Daily Prelims MCQs — Current Affairs— 9th June 2025
- TPP
- Jun 9
- 16 min read
Welcome to last week’s (1 June – 7 June) handpicked set of 15 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) curated from the most relevant and high-impact current affairs. Designed especially for UPSC Prelims preparation, these questions bridge the gap between dynamic news events and static concepts — just the way UPSC frames them in the exam.
Each question is backed by clear explanations and source references, helping you not only test your knowledge but also strengthen conceptual clarity and develop contextual understanding.
This set cover a wide range of topics including: Brahmaputra River, Yarlung Tsangpo, three Gorges Dam, world’s largest hydropower station, Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY), Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) Project, Articles 81 and 82 , Delimitation, 42nd Amendment, Ladakh Official Languages Regulation, 2025, Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025, LAHDC Act of 1997, World Environment Day, Ramsar sites, Ramsar Convention, B1 (thiamine) to B12 (cobalamin), Operation Spider Web, Valley of Flowers, Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, #BeatPlasticPollution, Global Education Monitoring (GEM) report, Indian Premier League (IPL) and more…
Use this as your daily revision boost to sharpen your understanding, stay exam-ready, and master how UPSC turns news into questions.
Click Here to read the Current Affairs Pointers (CAP) for January 2025- April 2025.
QUESTION 1
With reference to the Brahmaputra River, consider the following statements:
1. It originates as Yarlung Tsangpo in Sikkim.
2. The river is known as Siang in Assam and Meghna in Bangladesh.
3. Brahmaputra sub-basin extends over Tibet (China), India and Bangladesh only.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (d)
Explanation:
India has been keeping track of Chinese infrastructure projects along the river. The majority are hydropower dams with little storage and are located far upstream from Arunachal Pradesh, with little significant influence on Arunachal or Assam.
A major source of concern is the proposed Medog (or Motuo) Hydropower Project, a huge dam in Medog County near the ‘Great Bend’, where the river makes a U-turn and plunges into a canyon before entering Arunachal Pradesh.
According to sources, the projected 60,000-MW Medog project will be the world’s largest hydropower facility, with a generation capacity three times more than the Three Gorges Dam on the Yangtze, which is currently the world’s largest hydropower station.
The Brahmaputra, the lifeline of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, begins in Tibet as Yarlung Tsangpo and flows into India at Gelling in Arunachal Pradesh. The river, known as Siang in Arunachal Pradesh, is joined by other tributaries in Assam as it runs across the plains before entering Bangladesh, where it is known as Jamuna. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
Brahmaputra sub-basin extends over an area of 580,000 sq.km lying in Tibet (China), Bhutan, India and Bangladesh. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
QUESTION 2
With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY), consider the following statements:
It aims to provide affordable and accessible healthcare to low-income families.
It was launched in 2016.
It is the largest health insurance scheme in the world.
It provides a cover of Rs 5 lakhs per family per year to eligible beneficiaries for hospitalisation expenses in government hospitals only.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The promise of Ayushman Bharat appears to be unravelling in Jharkhand. Hospitals in the districts of Hazaribagh, Koderma, Palamu, and Deoghar have already pulled out of the initiative, alleging payment delays.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi introduced the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) in Ranchi in 2018, with the goal of making healthcare more inexpensive and accessible to low-income households. Since its inception, the initiative has treated over 23 lakh patients in Jharkhand. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
About AB PM-JAY
It covers eligible beneficiaries’ hospitalisation expenses in both government and empanelled private hospitals up to Rs 5 lakh per family per year. According to the Association of Healthcare Providers of India (AHPI) and the Indian Medical Association, the system currently covers approximately 750 institutions in Jharkhand. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
AB PM-JAY is the largest health insurance scheme in the world. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Current eligibility extends to the bottom 40% of households, as computed using deprivation and occupational statistics from the 2011 Socio-Economic Caste Census. Last year, the Prime Minister declared that coverage would be extended to all people over the age of 70.
The cost of implementation of AB PM-JAY is shared between the Central and State Governments in a 60:40 ratio.
QUESTION 3
With reference to the railways in Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:
The first railway line in the former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir was built by the British in 1897.
The first railway line was built over a distance of 40-45 km between Jammu and Rawalpindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has flagged off two specially designed Vande Bharat trains between Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Katra and Srinagar. The opening of a direct train link to the Valley is a historic milestone that is expected to have far-reaching implications for Kashmir’s growth, trade, and tourism, as well as its closer overall integration with the rest of the country.
The British built the first railway line in the former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir in 1897, stretching 40-45 kilometres between Jammu and Sialkot in the plains. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
After Partition, Sialkot was transferred to Pakistan, and Jammu was separated from India’s rail network. Until the Pathankot-Jammu line opened in 1975, the nearest railway station to Jammu and Kashmir was Pathankot in Punjab.
Construction of a railway line connecting Jammu and Udhampur began in 1983. This 53-kilometer line was meant to be completed in five years, but it really took 21 years. With work still underway, the national government stated in 1994 that the line would be extended from Udhampur to Srinagar and then to Baramulla.
This was the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) Project, which was sanctioned in March 1995 with an estimated cost of Rs 2,500 crore. The USBRL was proclaimed a national project in 2002, and sections of the line became operational in subsequent years.
QUESTION 4
Consider the following statements:
This volcano is the highest in Italy south of the Alps, and it is the largest of Europe’s active volcanoes.
It has five craters, which are responsible for most of the volcano’s eruptions. “Flank” eruptions also occur at the 300-odd vents of varying sizes along the slopes of the mountain.
It has been a World Heritage Site since 2013.
The statements given above refer to:
(a) Hawaii Volcanoes National Park
(b) Volcanoes of Kamchatka
(c) Stromboli
(d) Mount Etna
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Mount Etna, Europe’s greatest volcano, erupted explosively, spewing a massive cloud of ash, smoke, and rock fragments several kilometres into the sky.
Mount Etna, also known simply as Etna, is an active volcano on the east coast of Sicily, the largest island in the Mediterranean Sea, located just off the toe of the Italian “boot”. Etna’s peak is the highest in Italy south of the Alps, and it is Europe’s greatest active volcano.
Etna’s summit contains five craters that are responsible for the majority of the volcano’s eruptions. “Flank” eruptions also occur at the mountain’s 300-odd vents, which vary in magnitude.
Etna has been a World Heritage Site since 2013, and according to UNESCO, the volcano’s eruptive history dates back 500,000 years. At least 2,700 years of this activity have been recorded.
QUESTION 5
With reference to the Delimitation, consider the following statements:
Delimitation is mandated under Articles 81 and 82 of the Constitution of India.
The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, passed during the Emergency, froze the total number of Parliamentary and state Assembly seats until the 2001 Census.
The Delimitation Commission would be headed by a retired Supreme Court judge and would have a Chief Election Commissioner and State Election Commissioner as members.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The announcement of the decision to conduct the Population Census-2027 in two phases, along with caste enumeration, has reignited the debate over delimitation, particularly in the southern states, with Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M K Stalin demanding an answer from the Centre and accusing it of delaying the headcount in order to reduce the state’s parliamentary representation.
Delimitation has been a sensitive issue, with southern states’ ruling parties worried that if delimitation is based on population enumeration from the most recent Census, they may lose representation in Parliament.
Delimitation is mandated under Articles 81 and 82 of the Constitution and is required to be carried out after every Census. This occurred three times, according to the Censuses of 1951, 1961, and 1971. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
During the Emergency, the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution was passed, freezing the overall number of parliamentary and state assembly seats until the 2001 census. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The current delimitation of Parliamentary constituencies within states is based on the 2001 Census, as prescribed by the Delimitation Act of 2002. However, only the boundaries of constituencies have changed, not the number of seats, which remains the same as in the 1971 Census.
According to the Delimitation Act of 2002, the Delimitation Commission would be led by a retired Supreme Court judge and would include a Chief Election Commissioner and a State Election Commissioner as members. MPs and MLAs from various states serve on the Commission, but none of them have voting privileges. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
QUESTION 6
Which of the languages is/are the official language of Ladakh under the Ladakh Official Languages Regulation, 2025?
English
Urdu
Purgi
Balti
Ladakhi
Hindi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 6
(d) 2, 4 and 5 only
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Centre has notified a number of regulations for Ladakh’s land, jobs, and cultural preservation, in response to concerns voiced by Ladakh’s civil society over the last five years.
The new legal framework includes a domicile-based job reservation system, acknowledgement of local languages, and more procedural clarity in public service recruiting.
Ladakh Civil Services Decentralization and Recruitment (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: This regulation introduces a domicile requirement for recruitment in government posts under the Union Territory of Ladakh, for the first time. The domicile is defined as a person who has resided in Ladakh for 15 years; or a person who has studied for 7 years and appeared in either Class 10 or 12 examination in Ladakh; Children of Central Government employees who have served in Ladakh for at least 10 years; and children and spouses of domiciles.
Ladakh Civil Services Domicile Certificate Rules, 2025: These rules lay out the procedure and documentation required to obtain a domicile certificate. The tehsildar is designated as the issuing authority, while the Deputy Commissioner is the appellate authority. Applications can be submitted both physically and electronically.
Union Territory of Ladakh Reservation (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: This regulation caps the total reservation for Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), Other Backward Classes (OBC), and other socially and educationally backward groups at 85%, excluding the 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
Ladakh Official Languages Regulation, 2025: This law recognises English, Hindi, Urdu, Bhoti, and Purgi as the official languages of Ladakh. It also mandates institutional support for the promotion of Shina, Brokskat, Balti, and Ladakhi, for preserving Ladakh’s linguistic and cultural diversity.
Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: This amends the LAHDC Act of 1997 to reserve one-third of the seats for women in the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils of Leh and Kargil, through rotation.
QUESTION 7
Recently, on the eve of World Environment Day, Khichan and Menar have been designated as Ramsar sites. These sites are located in:
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer (c)
Explanation:
On the eve of World Environment Day, Bhupender Yadav, Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, announced that Khichan in Phalodi and Menar in Udaipur have been declared as Ramsar sites.
This addition brings our total to 91. The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental pact that was signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran. It fosters the protection and conservation of wetlands around the world by identifying them as such. Ramsar sites are also referred to as wetlands of international importance.
According to the Convention, wetlands are defined as “areas of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres”. It states that wetlands are vital for human survival, and that “They are among the world’s most productive environments; cradles of biological diversity that provide the water and productivity upon which countless species of plants and animals depend for survival. Wetlands are indispensable for the countless benefits of ‘ecosystem services’ that they provide humanity, ranging from freshwater supply, food and building materials, and biodiversity, to flood control, groundwater recharge, and climate change mitigation.”
QUESTION 8
With reference to vitamin B, consider the following statements:
1. These are often praised for boosting energy, supporting brain function, and maintaining healthy skin and metabolism.
2. B12 (thiamine) aids nerve function and energy metabolism; a deficiency can lead to fatigue or, in severe cases, nerve damage.
3. B1 (cobalamin) is necessary for red blood cell formation and nerve health.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
B vitamins are often praised for boosting energy, supporting brain function, and maintaining healthy skin and metabolism. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
But this essential group of water-soluble nutrients isn’t just one vitamin — it’s a family of eight, each with a unique function in the body. From B1 (thiamine) to B12 (cobalamin), each type plays a specific role in everything from red blood cell formation to converting food into fuel.
B1 (thiamine) aids nerve function and energy metabolism; a deficiency can lead to fatigue or, in severe cases, nerve damage. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
B2 (riboflavin) supports skin and eye health, and its deficiency may cause mouth sores or cracked lips.
B3 (niacin) is essential for cellular repair, and a lack of it can lead to pellagra.
B5 (pantothenic acid) is key in hormone production, with deficiency symptoms like fatigue and numbness.
B6 (pyridoxine) helps in mood regulation, and low levels may cause irritability or anemia.
B7 (biotin) supports skin and hair health; deficiency may result in hair loss.
B9 (folate) is vital in pregnancy for fetal development
B12 (cobalamin) is necessary for red blood cell formation and nerve health—its deficiency can cause memory issues or numbness. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following countries has launched ‘Operation Spider Web’, a covert drone attack?
(a) Turkey
(b) Syria
(c) Ukraine
(d) Lebanon
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Ukraine has traditionally kept its battlefront operations under wraps for the past four years, but Operation Spider’s Web marks a departure. Kyiv openly revealed a lot of information about the daring operation that dealt the biggest blow of the war to Moscow’s long-range bomber force.
Ukraine deliberately chose to describe in full how it planned and carried out the operation, which involved smuggling drones in decoy trucks, driving them 4,000 km through Russia, and remotely firing them under the enemy’s nose. With this, any Russian supply truck becomes a potential weapon. Every driver is a potential saboteur. Every highway is a threat vector.
QUESTION 10
Consider the following statements about the ‘Valley of Flowers’:
It is located within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.
It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
This region is populated by a local tribe called the Bhotiyas.
The region encompasses a unique transition zone between the mountain ranges of the Zanskar and Great Himalaya.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The Valley of Flowers in Uttarakhand opened to tourists this year on June 1. The valley is normally open for four months — June, July, August, and September — and closes around October, as cold and snow make it dangerous for tourists at other times of year.
The Valley of Flowers, located in Chamoli district, is a UNESCO World Heritage site. Tourists have long been attracted by its stunning alpine meadows, which bloom with hundreds of different flower species amid the lush forest. The valley also supports a diverse population of birds and animals. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Valley of Flowers is located within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve and covers an area of 87 square kilometres. Nanda Devi, India’s second tallest mountain (after Kangchenjunga), has religious importance as the patron deity of Garhwal and Kumaon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The area has long had a significance in Hindu mythology and is populated by a local tribe called the Bhotiyas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
“The gentle landscape of Valley of Flowers National Park complements the rugged mountain wilderness of Nanda Devi National Park.” “They comprise a unique transition zone between the mountain ranges of the Zanskar and Great Himalaya, praised by mountaineers and botanists for over a century and in Hindu mythology for much longer,” UNESCO writes of the site. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
QUESTION 11
The theme of the World Environment Day 2025 was:
(a) Only One Earth
(b) Our Land Our Future. We are #GenerationRestoration
(d) Solutions to plastic pollution
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Industrial Revolution, along with increasing urbanisation and population growth, has significantly contributed to the degradation of our natural environment.
World Environment Day, organised by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), serves as an important occasion to raise awareness about environmental crises and promote action for sustainability.
This global event is observed annually on June 5; this year, in 2025, it will be falling on a Thursday, June 5, with the Republic of Korea hosting the event. It will focus on the theme #BeatPlasticPollution.
The theme aims to teach people about how we make, use, and throw away plastics, and what effects they have. The initiative seeks to engage communities globally in advocating for and implementing effective solutions.
QUESTION 12
Consider the following statements:
Freedom Flotilla Coalition is an international movement which works towards “ending the illegal Israeli blockade of Gaza”.
Madleen, recently seen in the news, is an aircraft that intends to deliver humanitarian aid to the besieged Gaza Strip.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
A ship with 12 international activists on board, including Sweden’s Greta Thunberg, set sail from Catania, Italy for Gaza on Sunday (June 1). Backed by Freedom Flotilla Coalition (FFC), Madleen intends to deliver humanitarian aid to the besieged Gaza Strip.
This is FFC’s second such attempt in the past five weeks. Its last aid ship, Conscience, was allegedly hit by Israeli drones while on its way to Gaza on May 2. Israel is yet to respond to the allegations.
That said, Israel has issued veiled threats to Madleen, as it had done to Conscience. And over the years, it has gone to great lengths to maintain the blockade of Gaza, including killing a number of activists on their way to Gaza by sea in 2010.
Established in 2010, FFC is an international movement which works towards “ending the illegal Israeli blockade of Gaza”. In a press release, FFC said that Madleen was carrying “urgently needed” supplies to Gaza, including baby formula, flour, rice, diapers, women’s sanitary products, water desalination kits, medical supplies, crutches, and children’s prosthetics.
QUESTION 13
With reference to UNESCO’s Global Education Monitoring (GEM) report, consider the following statements:
About 60% of countries have laws or standards in place to regulate food and beverages in schools
Most school meal programmes have education goals, alongside nutrition, health, social protection objectives and focus on preventing or mitigating obesity.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
UNESCO’s Global Education Monitoring (GEM) report has found that only 60% of countries have laws or standards in place to regulate food and beverages in schools, raising concerns over the global commitment to student health. The report, released in collaboration with the Research Consortium for School Health and Nutrition, is backed by the London School of Hygiene and Tropical Medicine under the School Meals Coalition.
“Only 93 out of 187 countries have legislation, compulsory standards or guidance on school food and beverages. However, only 29 per cent of these 93 countries had measures restricting food and beverage marketing in schools and only 60 per cent have standards governing food and beverages,” according to the Global Education Monitoring (GEM) Report.
The GEM team noted that a survey-based assessment of school-based food and nutrition education in 30 low- and middle-income countries found that integration within the school system was mostly through extracurricular or project-based activities rather than as a standalone subject or across the curriculum.
“In only three of 28 countries were assessments regularly conducted and used. The assessment information included changes in attitudes and perceptions about food and nutrition, knowledge, food practice, nutritional status, habits and diets,” according to the report.
“Most school meal programmes have education goals, alongside nutrition, health and social protection objectives. However, fewer programmes focus on preventing or mitigating obesity,” it read.
QUESTION 14
With reference to the G7 Summit, consider the following statements:
Italy will host the G7 Summit in June 2025.
India has been invited to every G7 Summit since 2019.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b)
Explanation:
In a diplomatic outreach towards mending bilateral ties after a year-and-half of acrimony and hostility, Canadian Prime Minister Mark Carney Friday invited Prime Minister Narendra Modi to the G7 Summit on June 15-17.
The invitation, less than 10 days before the Summit, is a major breakthrough after the chill in ties. The two countries downgraded diplomatic ties after Justin Trudeau, the then Canadian Prime Minister, set off a political storm in 2023 when he alleged “potential” involvement of Indian government agents in the killing of a Canada-based Khalistan separatist, Hardeep Singh Nijjar. India rejected the charges as “absurd” and “motivated”.
India has been invited to every G7 Summit since 2019.
Must Read: G7 summit in Canada
QUESTION 15
With reference to Indian Premier League (IPL), consider the following statements:
Both Mumbai Indians and Chennai Super Kings (CSK) are two of the most successful sides in the history of IPL, having won five titles each.
Chennai Super Kings (CSK) have reached the IPL final the most times.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The 18th season of the Indian Premier League (IPL) came to a close with Royal Challengers Bengaluru (RCB) winning their first IPL title after beating Punjab Kings (PBKS) in the IPL 2025 final at the Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad on Tuesday. The Rajat Patidar-led RCB have had a phenomenal tournament, with the team finishing second in the standings after the league stage before they thrashed the same PBKS side in Qualifier 1 to reach the finals.
The Shreyas Iyer-led Punjab, too, has looked a different team under him and coach Ricky Ponting. The captain-coach duo took Punjab to their first final since 2014 and only their second overall.
Rajasthan Royals (RR) are the inaugural IPL champions of 2008. They beat Chennai Super Kings (CSK) by three wickets to lift the first cup. In 2009, Deccan Chargers (now defunct) beat RCB in the final to win the title. Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR) are the most recent champions of the IPL. They beat Sunrisers Hyderabad in the final of 2024.
Both Mumbai Indians and Chennai Super Kings (CSK) are two of the most successful sides in the history of IPL, having won five titles each. Chennai have also reached the IPL final (10) the most times.
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