Daily Prelims MCQs — Science, Technology, Environment and Geography — 24th June 2025
- TPP
- Jun 24
- 10 min read
Welcome to today’s handpicked set of Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) from the Science, Technology, Environment and Geography section — crafted specially for the UPSC Prelims! These questions aren’t just a quiz — they’re a smart way to see how current affairs connect with core concepts, just like UPSC asks in the exam.
Each question is based on recent news and backed by clear explanations to help you build strong links between dynamic events and static knowledge.
Today’s topics include: James Webb Space Telescope, Short tandem repeat (STR), Atoms4Food , Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), carbon dating, International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), human-wildlife conflict, National Mission for a Green India, Indian Flapshell Turtle, bioluminescence and more…
Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).
QUESTION 1
With reference to the James Webb Space Telescope, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched by NASA in 2021.
2. It orbits around the Earth like the Hubble Space Telescope.
3. Its goal is to search for the first galaxies or luminous objects formed after the Big Bang.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The wonders of space continue to excite scientists and space enthusiasts alike. A new finding made with NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope has sparked new enthusiasm and intrigue within the scientific community.
In a new study, researchers at Kansas State University discovered an unexpected pattern in how galaxies spin. They investigated 263 old galaxies with photos from the James Webb Space Telescope, some of which were formed 300 million years after the Big Bang. They determined that almost 60% of these galaxies rotate clockwise, contradicting the widely accepted belief that galaxy spins were random.
About James Webb Space Telescope (JWST)
The JWST is an orbiting infrared observatory that will supplement and expand the Hubble Space Telescope’s findings by providing extended wavelength coverage and significantly increased sensitivity.
Webb investigates every stage of our Universe’s history, from the first brilliant glows after the Big Bang to the emergence of solar systems capable of supporting life on planets such as Earth, and the evolution of our own Solar System.
NASA launched Webb on December 25th, 2021. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It does not orbit the Earth like the Hubble Space Telescope; instead, it orbits the Sun 1.5 million kilometres (1 million miles) away at the second Lagrange point, often known as L2. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Mission Goals:
Early Universe: Look for the first galaxies or light objects that emerged after the Big Bang. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Galaxies Over Time: Determine how galaxies evolved from their formation until now.
Star Lifecycle: Follow the development of stars from their earliest stages to the formation of planetary systems.
Other Worlds: Measure the physical and chemical attributes of planetary systems, including our own Solar System, and examine the potential for life elsewhere.
QUESTION 2
The Short tandem repeat (STR) analysis is used in:
(a) Cosmic rays
(b) Sighting for astronomical objects
(c) DNA identification
(d) for checking flight safety
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Authorities are using DNA analysis to identify the remains of passengers killed in the Ahmedabad crash of the Air India Boeing 787 Dreamliner. A small number of remains have already been recognised, and DNA samples from the victims’ relatives have already been gathered.
Extracting DNA from the samples is the next step after collection. Scientists can then select from a variety of analytical techniques based on the quality of the DNA that was collected.
Short tandem repeat (STR) analysis: The method evaluates short tandem repeats, which are essentially short repeating sequences of DNA. STRs are used for DNA identification as they widely vary between individuals. “After analysing 15 or more of these hyper-variable regions of DNA… the resulting profile can be used to ascertain family relationships with a high degree of confidence,” according to a report by the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC).
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) analysis: This method is used when nuclear DNA is degraded or unavailable. Mitochondrial DNA is found within the cell’s energy-producing organelles known as mitochondria. As mtDNA is present in multiple copies within the cell, it is easier to recover from human remains that are not well preserved.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following organisations have launched the Flagship ‘Atoms4Food’ Initiative to Expand the Use of Nuclear Techniques for Global Food Security?
1. International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research
3. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
4. Food and Agriculture Organisation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO) inaugurated ‘Atoms4Food’, a new flagship effort to assist increase food security and combat global hunger.
The Atoms4Food effort will help countries adopt innovative nuclear technology to increase agricultural output, reduce food losses, ensure food safety, improve nutrition, and adapt to the challenges of climate change.
QUESTION 4
With reference to the Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), consider the following statements:
1. They are suitable only for on-grid and not for off-grid applications.
2. These are cost-effective alternatives to conventional large nuclear reactors.
3. India is extensively researching Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) to achieve net-zero emissions while maintaining energy security.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (b)
Explanation:
India is extensively researching Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) as a critical component of its energy transition strategy, with the goal of achieving net-zero emissions while maintaining energy security. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors with power generation capacities ranging from less than 30 MWe to over 300 MWe.
It offers a versatile, scalable, and cost-effective alternative to traditional big nuclear reactors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Given India’s rising energy demands and the need for dependable, low-carbon power, SMRs can play a game-changing role in supplementing renewable energy sources and stabilising the grid.
SMRs’ modular design enables factory-based manufacture, lowering construction deadlines and costs, making them suitable for both on-grid and off-grid applications, including distant deployment. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
QUESTION 5
With reference to carbon dating, consider the following statements:
1. The dating method is based on the fact that Carbon-12 (C-12), an isotope of carbon, is radioactive and decays at a well known rate.
2. The age of non-living things more than 40,000-50,000 years old can be determined through carbon dating.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Carbon dating is a frequently used method for determining the age of organic materials, which were previously alive. Carbon can exist in a variety of forms within living things.
The dating method is based on the fact that Carbon-14 (C-14), a radioactive isotope of carbon with an atomic mass of 14, decays at a predictable pace. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Plants acquire their carbon from photosynthesis, whereas animals obtain it primarily from food. Because plants and animals derive their carbon from the environment, they absorb C-12 and C-14 in nearly the same proportions as the atmosphere.
When they die, their interaction with the atmosphere ceases. While C-12 is stable, radioactive C-14 has a ‘half-life’ of approximately 5,730 years.
Carbon dating cannot be used in all cases. Carbon dating cannot be used to estimate the age of non-living items such as rocks, and it cannot determine the age of things older than 40,000–50,000 years. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
QUESTION 6
With reference to the International Big Cat Alliance, consider the following statements:
1. There are 95 range countries which fall within the natural distribution of the big cats.
2. All UN member countries can become members after the framework agreement is signed.
3. The first Assembly of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was held in Moscow.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The first Assembly of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was held in New Delhi, presided over by the Union Minister for Environment, Forests and Climate Change, Bhupender Yadav. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
In March 2024, the Indian government established the IBCA through the National Tiger Conservation Authority, which reports to the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change. Its mandate is to protect seven big cats: the tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, cheetah, jaguar, and puma.
It was created “to facilitate collaboration and synergy among stakeholders, consolidating successful conservation practices and expertise and replicating them in range countries.” The Union government has set aside Rs 150 crore for the purpose from 2023-24 to 2027-28.
The big cats have 95 range countries (those within a species’ natural distribution), which include Canada, China, Congo, Ghana, Brazil, Iran, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, and the United States. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
All UN member countries can become members after the framework agreement is signed and conveyed through a Note Verbale, a method of formal diplomatic communication. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is/are the reason which led to the increase in human-wildlife conflict?
1. Fluctuations in wildlife population
2. Animals forced to move out of their habitats
3. Grazing of domestic cattle in forest areas
4. Changes in cropping pattern
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Kerala has sought the Union government’s nod to kill wild animals that pose a threat to human life and properties. The state wants the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 amended so it can be allowed to kill wild animals that foray into human habitats.
The primary problem animals include tigers, leopards, elephants, bison, wild boar, bonnet macaques, and peafowl. Although bonnet macaques (a monkey species) and peafowl pose little threat to humans, their regular raids have driven farmers to abandon enormous swaths of agricultural land.
Major reasons include regional fluctuations in wildlife populations, animals forced to relocate when the quality of their habitats deteriorates, domestic cattle grazing in forest regions, changes in cropping patterns, and so on. But, more crucially, the population growth of wild pigs and various monkey species is causing havoc on human habitats.
QUESTION 8
With reference to the National Mission for a Green India, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched in 2014.
2. Its main objective is to protect, restore, and enhance India’s forest and tree cover, using a blend of climate adaptation and mitigation strategies.
3. The Western Ghats mountain ranges are not included in the Green India Mission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (b)
Explanation:
According to the new Green India Mission (GIM) whitepaper, the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change would prioritise the restoration of sensitive landscapes such as the Aravallis and Western Ghats mountain ranges, mangroves, and the Indian Himalayan area.
The amended document claimed that a’micro-ecosystem’ approach will be used to make interventions in sensitive landscapes such as the Aravallis, Western Ghats, arid parts of North West India, mangroves, and the Indian Himalayan region. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
The National Mission for a Green India was established in February 2014 as one of the eight main missions of India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
GIM’s primary goal is to maintain, restore, and improve India’s forest and tree cover using a combination of climate adaptation and mitigation techniques. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
One of the mission’s primary goals was to expand forest and tree cover on 5 million hectares of forest and non-forest land, as well as improve the quality of forest cover on an additional 5 million hectares.
QUESTION 9
With reference to the Indian Flapshell Turtle, consider the following statements:
1. It is a small softshell turtle with a carapace length of up to 350 mm.
2. These species live only in the oceans.
3. They are found only in the Indian Subcontinent.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Indian Flapshell Turtle is a small softshell turtle with a carapace length of up to 350 mm. Nesting often begins in late summer and continues through the monsoon season, which lasts from July to November. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
These species live in a wide range of aquatic habitats, including rivers and streams, reservoirs, marshes, ponds, lakes, and even salt marshes, rice fields, gutters, and canals in urban areas. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
It is ubiquitous in brackish water lagoons on India’s east coast and is frequently seen in irrigation canals and tanks, as well as stagnant paddy fields.
Distribution: India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan. The Indian Flapshell Turtle is native to the Indian Subcontinent, and it’s also found in some parts of Myanmar (not considered part of the Indian subcontinent). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following species exhibit bioluminescence?
1. Jellyfish
2. Worms
3. Sea stars
4. Sharks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Bioluminescence is the ability of a living creature to generate and radiate light. This phenomenon is unusual in terrestrial ecosystems but prevalent in marine environments.
Many marine animals, including bacteria, algae, jellyfish, worms, crabs, sea stars, fish, and sharks, can create their own light. Deep-living and planktonic creatures exhibit higher luminescence than shallow species. Furthermore, the appearance of bioluminescent light varies depending on the environment and the creature in which it is present.
According to NOAA, bioluminescence is the product of an enzyme reaction. An enzyme accelerates a chemical reaction by assisting a substrate in reacting. The enzyme is reused in the process rather than being converted into another molecule
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