Daily Prelims MCQs – Current Affairs – 21st July 2025

Welcome to last week’s (14 July – 20 July) handpicked set of 15 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) curated from the most relevant and high-impact current affairs. Designed especially for UPSC Prelims preparation, these questions bridge the gap between dynamic news events and static concepts — just the way UPSC frames them in the exam.

Each question is backed by clear explanations and source references, helping you not only test your knowledge but also strengthen conceptual clarity and develop contextual understanding.

This set cover a wide range of topics including: Gravitational waves, INSNistar, TRF, ED, PMLA, PMDDKY, AkashPrime missile, EFTA, PortKlang, Spousal Privilege, Swachh Survekshan 2024-25, genome sequencing project, PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan 2024 and more...

Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).

QUESTION 1

Consider the following statements regarding gravitational waves:

1. Gravitational waves are disturbances in spacetime generated due to the motion of extremely massive objects.

2. The theoretical basis for gravitational waves was introduced by Albert Einstein in his General Theory of Relativity, formulated in 1915.

3. The very first successful detection of gravitational waves occurred in the year 2015.

How many of the above statements are accurate?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (c)

Explanation:

• Gravitational waves are essentially distortions or ripples in the fabric of spacetime, much like the waves created on water when an object moves through it. These ripples result from high-energy astrophysical processes, such as the collision or merging of black holes—phenomena that involve immense gravitational interactions.

• The concept of gravitational waves was originally predicted by Albert Einstein in 1915 as part of his General Theory of Relativity. Despite the early theoretical formulation, the first direct detection took a full century. In 2015, scientists using the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) in the United States were able to measure gravitational waves for the first time. The signal came from the merger of two massive black holes—a rare and incredibly energetic cosmic event.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements about INS Nistar:

1. INS Nistar was inducted into service by the Indian Navy at the Naval Dockyard located in Kochi.

2. The vessel was jointly designed and built in partnership with France.

3. Its primary function includes facilitating submarine rescue and deep-sea diving operations.

How many of the above statements are factually accurate?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (a)

Explanation:

INS Nistar, a Diving Support Vessel (DSV), was formally commissioned into the Indian Navy at the Naval Dockyard in Visakhapatnam, not Kochi. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

The vessel has been entirely designed and constructed in India by Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL), under a contract signed in 2018. There was no foreign collaboration, including with France, in its development. Hence, statement 2 is also incorrect.

However, statement 3 is correct: INS Nistar is specifically intended for deep-sea diving operations and rescue of submarines in distress, significantly enhancing India’s naval capability beneath the surface. This addition also strengthens the nation's strategic presence in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

QUESTION 3

Regarding The Resistance Front (TRF), consider the following statements:

1. TRF has emerged as a faction linked to the Taliban, which is based in Afghanistan.

2. In January 2023, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) officially listed TRF as a terrorist group under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.

Which of the above statements is/are accurate?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (b)

Explanation:

The Resistance Front (TRF) is not affiliated with the Taliban. Instead, it is recognized as a proxy or offshoot of the Pakistan-based terrorist group Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT). Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

In January 2023, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) designated TRF as a terrorist organisation under the provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA). The government cited TRF’s involvement in activities such as terror propaganda, recruiting militants, cross-border infiltration, and trafficking arms and narcotics from Pakistan into Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

In addition to India’s action, the U.S. Department of State has also recognized TRF as a Foreign Terrorist Organization (FTO) and listed it as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist (SDGT). TRF had previously claimed responsibility for the April 22 Pahalgam attack, which caused the death of 26 individuals in South Kashmir's Baisaran area.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Enforcement Directorate's (ED) powers under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), consider the following statements:

1. Under Section 5 of the PMLA, the ED Director or an officer not below the rank of Deputy Director authorised by him can provisionally attach assets believed to be linked to the proceeds of crime in relation to a scheduled offence.

2. The duration of such a provisional attachment order is one year.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

Explanation:

As per Section 5 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, the Director of the Enforcement Directorate, or any officer not below the rank of Deputy Director authorised by him, is empowered to issue a provisional attachment order. This is done if there is reason to believe that the property in question is derived from or involved in money laundering and there is a likelihood that the person may conceal, transfer, or deal with such property in a way that could frustrate future confiscation proceedings. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

However, the validity of this attachment order is not for one year, but for 180 days (6 months) from the date of issue. If the Adjudicating Authority does not confirm the attachment within this period, the order lapses automatically. Until such confirmation, the person under investigation may continue to retain control of the property. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

In a related case, the ED recently filed a charge sheet against Robert Vadra, with a provisional attachment of 43 properties worth ₹37.64 crore. This action was taken under the powers granted by the PMLA.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following pairs of famous forts and their present-day locations:

Fort	State
1. Pratapgad Fort	Maharashtra
2. Panhala Fort	Karnataka
3. Salher Fort	Gujarat
4. Gingee Fort	Tamil Nadu

Which of the pairs listed above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer (d)

Explanation:

Fort	Location	Details
Pratapgad Fort	Satara, Maharashtra	Pratapgad Fort, built by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in 1656, is located in the harsh environment of the Western Ghats, 24 kilometres from Mahabaleshwar.
Panhala Fort	Kolhapur, Maharashtra	Panhala Fort near Kolhapur was designed to be a self-sustaining settlement. Originally built in the 12th century CE by the Shilaharas, a feudatory dynasty of the Rashtrakutas who ultimately founded their independent kingdom, the fort was occupied by the Yadavas of the Deccan, the Bahmani sultanate, the Adil Shahi kingdom of Bijapur, and finally the Marathas.
Salher Fort	Nashik, Maharashtra	Salher Fort is located in Satana taluka of Nashik district, near the village of Salher. It is a significant landmark of the Sahayadri mountain range, the highest fort in Maharashtra and one of the highest in the Western Ghats, located at a height 1,567 metres (5,141 feet).
Gingee Fort	Villupuram, Tamil Nadu	Gingee Fort, located in Tamil Nadu’s Villupuram district, is regarded as one of Peninsular India’s most powerful fortresses. Gingee, like many other forts, has served as a bastion for various dynasties, including the Vijayanagar Nayaks, Bijapur Sultans, Mughals, Marathas, French, and English.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY), consider the following statements:

1. The scheme aims to develop 100 agricultural districts by integrating 36 schemes from 11 different central ministries.

2. It will be implemented over a period of ten years starting from the financial year 2025–26.

3. The District Agriculture and Allied Activities Plan under this scheme will be drafted by a committee headed by the Chief Minister of the respective state.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana indeed seeks to transform 100 agricultural districts by converging 36 different schemes across 11 ministries, enabling a more holistic and coordinated development in the agriculture sector.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Although the scheme kicks off in the financial year 2025–26, it is planned for a duration of six years, not ten. The annual budget allocation stands at ₹24,000 crore.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The District Agriculture and Allied Activities Plan under this scheme will be prepared by a local body called the District Dhan Dhaanya Samiti, which is headed by the District Collector, not the Chief Minister. This committee will also include progressive farmers to ensure grassroots representation.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the Akash Prime missile, consider the following statements:

1. It delivers enhanced reliability in cold climatic conditions, particularly in high-altitude regions.

2. The Akash series falls under the category of short to medium-range surface-to-air missile systems.

3. The Prime variant features an indigenously developed active Radio Frequency (RF) seeker, enabling greater precision in targeting aerial threats.

How many of the above statements are accurate?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Akash Prime is designed to perform efficiently in low-temperature, high-altitude environments, addressing operational challenges reported by the armed forces during its deployment in such regions. The missile system can function at altitudes above 4,500 meters.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Akash missile, developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) by the DRDO, is classified as a short to medium-range surface-to-air missile, with an operational reach of approximately 27–30 km.

• Statement 3 is correct: A key upgrade in the Akash Prime over its predecessor is the integration of an indigenous active Radio Frequency (RF) seeker, which enhances the missile’s precision strike capability against aerial targets. This improvement was validated in a successful test in Ladakh, where it accurately neutralized high-speed unmanned aerial targets.

QUESTION 8

Which of the following countries are part of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?

1. Iceland

2. Sweden

3. Liechtenstein

4. Denmark

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer (d)

Explanation:

• The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is a regional trade bloc comprising Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.

• EFTA members are not part of the European Union (EU), although they maintain close economic relations with the EU.

• Sweden and Denmark, while European countries, are EU member states and not part of EFTA, so statements 2 and 4 are incorrect.

• The importance of EFTA for India increased recently when India signed the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA on March 10, 2024, under which India is set to receive USD 100 billion in investment over 15 years, creating an estimated 1 million direct jobs.

• The agreement officially comes into effect from October 1, as confirmed by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal.

QUESTION 9

Port Klang, which was recently in the news, is located in which of the following countries?

(a) Oman

(b) Myanmar

(c) Malaysia

(d) South Korea

Answer (c)

Explanation:

• Port Klang is a prominent maritime port located on the west coast of Malaysia, and it was recently in the spotlight due to a significant Indian naval visit.

• The INS Sandhayak, India’s first indigenously designed and built large hydrographic survey ship, made a maiden port call at Port Klang from July 16–19. This visit was part of India's effort to enhance international maritime collaboration.

• The port call aligns with India’s MAHASAGAR vision—short for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions—which aims to strengthen maritime cooperation and security in the wider Indo-Pacific region.

• The mission also highlights India's expanding contribution to regional hydrographic capacity building, through institutions like the Indian Naval Hydrographic Department (INHD) and the National Hydrographic Office.

QUESTION 10

With reference to Spousal Privilege, consider the following statements:

1. It implies that an individual cannot be forced to provide testimony against their spouse in criminal proceedings.

2. In the Indian legal framework, this principle is enshrined under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act.

3. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that covertly recorded conversations between spouses can be admitted as evidence in matrimonial matters, including divorce cases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

Explanation:

• The Supreme Court recently overturned a 2021 decision by the Punjab and Haryana High Court, which had previously disallowed a husband seeking divorce from using secretly recorded telephone conversations with his wife as evidence. This apex court ruling confirmed that such covertly recorded spousal conversations are admissible evidence in matrimonial disputes, including divorce proceedings. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

• The doctrine of spousal privilege protects a spouse from being compelled to testify against the other in criminal cases, recognizing the need to preserve privacy and trust in marital communications. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• The Indian legal codification of spousal privilege exists under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, which prohibits disclosure of confidential communications between spouses during marriage, unless exceptions apply—such as suits between spouses or prosecution for crimes committed against one another. Therefore, Statement 2 is also correct.

• It’s important to note that while spousal privilege covers private communications, it does not directly restrict evidence in divorce suits where allegations are supported by additional material like letters, photographs, or testimonies. Furthermore, technological advances have expanded the types of evidence admissible, including messages, videos, and voice recordings.

QUESTION 11

Which among the following cities has been declared the cleanest city in the Swachh Survekshan 2024-25 rankings?

(a) Indore

(b) Ahmedabad

(c) Bhopal

(d) Lucknow

Answer (b)

Explanation:

• In the Swachh Survekshan 2024-25 awards, Ahmedabad was honoured as the cleanest major city in India, outpacing other contenders like Bhopal and Lucknow, which secured the second and third positions respectively.

• This year’s rankings introduced a distinct category called the ‘Super Swachh League’ to recognise cities that have consistently performed in the top three of their categories over the past three years. Cities such as Indore, Surat, Navi Mumbai, and Vijayawada in the population bracket above 10 lakh were placed in this league and thus were not part of the regular nationwide ranking.

• The award was presented to Ahmedabad by President Droupadi Murmu during a ceremony held in New Delhi, celebrating its achievement among cities with populations exceeding 10 lakh.

• Notably, Indore and Surat, previous winners, had dominated earlier rankings with Indore being crowned the cleanest city for seven consecutive years until last year when both shared the top spot.

QUESTION 12

Which Indian state became the pioneer in initiating a genome sequencing project focused on tribal populations?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Gujarat

(c) Karnataka

(d) Kerala

Answer (b)

Explanation:

• Gujarat has taken the lead by launching an unprecedented initiative to conduct genome sequencing for 2,000 individuals belonging to various tribal communities spread across 17 districts of the state.

• The primary objective of this project is to identify the prevalence and genetic basis of hereditary disorders, with a special focus on conditions such as sickle cell anemia.

• This effort marks Gujarat as the first state in India to implement such a comprehensive tribal genome sequencing program, as announced by the Tribal Development Minister Kuber Dindor during a recent state-level dialogue held in Gandhinagar.

QUESTION 13

Consider the following statements regarding recent developments in India’s education sector:

1. The PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan, earlier known as the National Achievement Survey (NAS), is conducted by the NGO PRATHAM.

2. The primary aim of the PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan is to assess the effectiveness of India’s school education system by evaluating student competencies at different stages of learning.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (b)

Explanation:

• According to the findings of the PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan 2024, learning outcomes among students, particularly those in Class 3, have yet to fully recover to pre-pandemic levels observed in 2017. This survey was carried out by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), not by the NGO PRATHAM.

• The PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan, the successor to the National Achievement Survey (NAS), covered over 21 lakh students from Classes 3, 6, and 9 across 74,229 schools in December 2024.

• This assessment aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 framework, where Class 3 concludes the foundational stage, Class 6 the preparatory stage, and Class 9 the middle stage of schooling.

• The survey’s key objective is to evaluate the effectiveness of the school education system in India by measuring student competencies across these distinct educational phases.

QUESTION 14

The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife recently gave clearance to divert 310 hectares of forest land from the core zone of which Tiger Reserve for the development of the Arunachal Frontier Highway (NH-913) in Arunachal Pradesh?

(a) Namdapha Tiger Reserve

(b) Kamlang Tiger Reserve

(c) Dampa Tiger Reserve

(d) Pakke (Pakhui) Tiger Reserve

Answer (a)

Explanation:

• The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife (SC-NBWL) has recently approved several critical infrastructure projects aimed at strengthening India’s border defence along the frontier with China, spanning from eastern Ladakh through Sikkim to Arunachal Pradesh.

• Among these projects is the construction of the Arunachal Frontier Highway (NH-913), which runs close to the Myanmar border. This highway will pass through the core area of the Namdapha Tiger Reserve, necessitating the diversion of about 310 hectares of forest land.

• While the committee has given approval, it has emphasized the need for strict mitigation measures to reduce the adverse impact on wildlife and their habitats. The project will involve significant tree felling within this ecologically sensitive zone.

• These approvals are part of India’s broader strategy to enhance connectivity for defence logistics, including forward aviation bases and missile facilities, along the strategically sensitive Line of Actual Control (LAC).

QUESTION 15

Consider the following research topics:

1. Study of space microalgae

2. Investigation of myogenesis

3. Germination of methi and moong seeds

4. Examination of cancer behavior in microgravity

Which of the above-mentioned studies were not undertaken by Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla and his fellow astronauts during the Axiom-4 mission?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 4 only

Answer (d)

Explanation:

• During the Axiom-4 space mission, Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla successfully completed all seven planned microgravity experiments and related scientific tasks.

• These experiments involved research on the Indian strain of Tardigrades, myogenesis (muscle formation), sprouting of methi and moong seeds, cyanobacteria, microalgae, various crop seeds, and also included work on the Voyager Display system.

• However, studies related to cancer behavior in microgravity were not part of the scientific agenda carried out by Shukla and his colleagues on this mission.

Previous Daily UPSC Prelims MCQs Set

• 19th July 2025 - History & Culture MCQs

• 18th July 2025 - International Relation MCQs

• 17th July 2025 - Polity MCQs

• 16th July 2025 - Economy MCQs

• 15th July 2025 - Science, Technology, Environment and Geography MCQs

Previous Week Current Affairs MCQs Set

• 14th July 2025 – Current Affairs MCQs

• 7th July 2025 – Current Affairs MCQs

• 30th June 2025 - Current Affairs MCQs

• 23rd June 2025 - Current Affairs MCQs

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