Daily Prelims MCQs — Science, Technology, Environment and Geography — 1st July 2025
- TPP
- Jul 1
- 13 min read
Welcome to today’s handpicked set of Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) from the Science, Technology, Environment and Geography — crafted specially for the UPSC Prelims! These questions aren’t just a quiz — they’re a smart way to see how current affairs connect with core concepts, just like UPSC asks in the exam.
Each question is based on recent news and backed by clear explanations to help you build strong links between dynamic events and static knowledge.
Today’s topics include: LVM3, neutron stars, astrophysical objects, Charon: Pluto’s moon, GSaaS, Vera C Rubin Observatory, radiation leak threat, National Science Day 2025, Elephants in India, Clarion-Clipperton Zone, rare earth magnets, tiger reserves, Banakacherla reservoir project, Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary, Amur Falcons (Falco amurensis) and more…
Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).
QUESTION 1
With reference to the LVM3, consider the following statements:
1. It is a single-stage vehicle with one solid strap-on motor and one liquid core stage.
2. It is a heavy lift launch vehicle of ISRO which can only lift upto 500 kg spacecraft, with a launching capability to GTO (Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit) cost-effectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (d)
Explanation:
ISRO’s recent call to private enterprises to build India’s heaviest rocket is a long-awaited move towards increasing private sector participation in the country’s space effort. It would also help India get a foothold in the international space sector, which is quickly expanding due to rising demand for satellite launches.
LVM3 has three stages: two solid strap-on motors (S200), one liquid core stage (L110), and a high-thrust cryogenic upper stage (C25). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The S200 solid motor is one of the world’s largest solid boosters, containing 204 tonnes of solid propellant. The liquid L110 stage employs a dual liquid engine configuration with 115 tonnes of liquid propellant, and the C25 Cryogenic upper stage employs the wholly indigenous high thrust cryogenic engine (CE20) with a fuel loading of 28 tonnes.
LVM3 is ISRO’s latest heavy-lift launch vehicle, designed to send 4000 kg spacecraft to GTO (Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit) in a cost-effective manner. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
QUESTION 2
Consider the following statements about neutron stars:
1. They are superdense astrophysical objects formed at the beginning of a massive star’s life in a supernova explosion.
2. They constantly gain energy by emitting gravitational waves until they eventually collide and merge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Neutron stars are superdense astrophysical objects formed at the end of a massive star’s life in a supernova explosion. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Sometimes, neutron stars orbit each other in binary systems.
These systems constantly lose energy by emitting gravitational waves until they eventually collide and merge. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Researchers may now examine the physical characteristics of the universe’s most severe states because of these mergers. For instance, heavy metals like gold are formed under the circumstances of these high-energy collisions.
QUESTION 3
Consider the following statements:
1. It rotates backwards, from east to west.
2. It is the largest of Pluto’s five moons.
3. The moon’s orbit around Pluto takes around 6.4 Earth days.
4. The same surfaces of this moon and Pluto always face each other, a phenomenon called mutual tidal locking.
The above-mentioned statements refer to:
(a) Herse
(b) Nix
(c) Charon
(d) Hydra
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Charon is the largest of Pluto’s five moons. Charon is the largest known satellite in terms of its parent planet, measuring half the size of Pluto.
Charon and Pluto’s surfaces are always facing one other, which is known as mutual tidal locking.
Charon orbits Pluto every 6.4 Earth days. Charon is so large in comparison to Pluto that the two are sometimes considered a double dwarf planet system.
Charon does not rise or set, but instead hovers over the same point on Pluto’s surface, with the same side always facing Pluto. It rotates backwards, from east to west.
Charon was found in June 1978 by James Christy and Robert Harrington at the United States Naval Observatory in Flagstaff, Arizona, roughly six miles from the Lowell Observatory, which discovered Pluto.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is/ are considered a ground station as a service (GSaaS)?
1. Satellite control
2. Telemetry and tracking
3. Space data reception
4. Space situational awareness
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (d)
Explanation:
According to a consultation document published by the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe), the national agency responsible for regulating and marketing the private space industry, it is exploring opportunities for private operators to enter ground segments.
Ground stations are essentially ground-based antennas that help in communicating with the satellites.
According to the document, the ground station as a service (GSaaS) sector, which provides pay-per-use services such as satellite control, telemetry and tracking, space data reception, and space situational awareness, is expected to rise 30% by 2033, from $0.14 billion to $2.5 billion.
This is consistent with the government’s objective of increasing India’s participation in the global commercial space market from 2% to 8% by 2033.
QUESTION 5
The Vera C. Rubin Observatory was recently in the news. It is located in:
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) Chile
(d) Canada
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Vera C Rubin Observatory in Chile has unveiled its first spectacular photographs, demonstrating the strength of its 3,200-megapixel digital camera, which is the largest ever created. The photos, captured during testing in April after the telescope’s construction was completed, hint at a new era of sky surveys.
One spectacular image depicts the Trifid and Lagoon Nebulae in a star-forming area of the Milky Way. The image, made up of 678 monochrome exposures taken with four different filters, exhibits rich, vibrant detail after just over seven hours of observation.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is not a NASA Mission?
(a) Europa Clipper
(b) JUICE Mission
(c) Lucy Mission
(d) Artemis II
Answer (b)
Explanation:
According to esa.int, “ESA’s Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer, Juice, will make detailed observations of the giant gas planet and its three large ocean-bearing moons – Ganymede, Callisto and Europa – with a suite of remote sensing, geophysical and in situ instruments. The mission will characterise these moons as both planetary objects and possible habitats, explore Jupiter’s complex environment in depth, and study the wider Jupiter system as an archetype for gas giants across the Universe.”
You might like this: GAIA Space Observatory Shutdown: End of ESA’s Landmark Mission
QUESTION 7
Consider the following statements regarding nuclear devices and chain reactions:
1. The release of energy in a nuclear device results from the completion of a chain reaction in fissile material.
2. A chain reaction in fissile material can be initiated accidentally under high stress, such as during a missile or bomb strike.
3. The initiation of a nuclear chain reaction requires very precise conditions and processes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (b)
Explanation:
How nuclear weapons are different from other bombs
A nuclear bomb is very different from the traditional explosives and chemicals used in warfare. Traditional bombs use a variety of chemicals that are generally designed to explode on impact, like when they are dropped. These chemical explosives can go off in other circumstances as well, like when they are exposed to heat or friction. These are explosive in themselves, and can get triggered and cause damage even when they are not used in the way they are designed to. Specifically, stored chemical explosives can lead to blasts when these are struck by other weapons.
Nuclear weapons, or nuclear material, do not behave like that. A nuclear bomb causes damage not by exploding the way traditional bombs do, but by releasing very high amounts of energy in a very short span of time. This large amount of energy sets off a series of processes that cause widespread damage.
Nuclear weapons are designed to detonate mid-air, not on impact like traditional explosives. They release a massive amount of energy in a few milliseconds, which heats up the surrounding air to millions of degrees Celsius, leading to the formation of what are known as blast waves, an expanding bubble of extremely hot air. Most of the damage is caused by these blast waves.
A nuclear explosion also releases electromagnetic radiations of different kinds, and these also cause a lot of destruction.
The release of energy from a nuclear device is the result of completion of the chain reaction in the fissile material. The initiation of the chain reaction requires a very precise set of processes to be followed and very precise conditions. These precise conditions cannot be met accidentally, or when the fissile material is under some kind of stress, like when it is struck by a missile or a bomb.
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QUESTION 8
The theme for National Science Day 2025 was:
(a) Living in Space
(b) Global Science for Global Wellbeing
(c) Indigenous Technologies for VIKSIT BHARAT
(d) Empowering Indian Youth for Global Leadership in Science & Innovation for VIKSIT BHARAT
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The theme for this year’s National Science Day was “Empowering Indian Youth for Global Leadership in Science & Innovation for VIKSIT BHARAT.”
QUESTION 9
With reference to the Elephants in India, consider the following statements:
1. Project Elephant is a centrally sponsored scheme.
2. In north-eastern India, the elephant’s range extends along the foothills of the Himalayas from the eastern border of Nepal through northern West Bengal to western Assam.
3. Elephants are protected under Schedule II species of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
4. As per the recent elephant census, there are zero elephants in Nilambur—Silent Valley—Coimbatore region.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The Union Environment Ministry held a review of key initiatives under Project Elephant on Thursday at the 21st meeting of the project’s steering committee, chaired by Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav. Phase-I of the synchronised elephant population estimation for the Northeastern states was completed, according to the ministry.
Project Elephant is a centrally supported plan, and the steering committee oversees its implementation, as well as problems such as elephant conservation and habitat protection. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The last elephant census or estimating exercise was conducted in 2017, and it revealed that the country was home to around 29,964 elephants. Although a report on the next synchronised elephant census titled ‘Status of Elephants in India 2022-23’ was created. According to that report, the number of elephants has decreased by 20% over the previous five years.
The elephant is India’s national heritage animal, classified as a Schedule I species under the Indian Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Elephants in India
The elephant’s range in north-east India runs along the Himalayan foothills from Nepal’s eastern border to northern West Bengal to western Assam. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Elephant populations in central India are very fragmented, with a few individuals straying into Chhattisgarh from Orissa, Jharkhand, and the southern section of West Bengal.
In northwestern India, the species is distributed in six scattered populations in the Himalayan foothills of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh, extending from the Bahraich Forest Department’s Katranighat Wildlife Sanctuary in the east to the Yamuna River in the west.
Southern India has eight primary clusters that are split from one another: Northern Karnataka, Crystalline of Karnataka—Western Ghats; Bhadra—Malnad; Brahmagiri—Nilgiris—Eastern Ghats; Nilambur—Silent Valley—Coimbatore; Anamalai—Parambikulam; Periyar—Srivilliputhur; and Agasthyamalai. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
QUESTION 10
With reference to the ‘tigers outside of tiger reserve’, consider the following statements:
1. The scheme will be implemented by the Chief Wildlife Wardens of state forest departments, in close collaboration with the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
2. The scheme aims to manage conflicts more effectively through enhanced monitoring and protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c)
Explanation:
With frequent human-tiger conflicts in various forest divisions of the country, the Union Environment Ministry has approved funds for a pilot plan called ‘tigers outside of tiger reserve’ to better manage such conflicts through greater surveillance and protection. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
According to official documents, the executive committee of the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA), which is part of the Environment Ministry, approved in-principle funding for the scheme on a pilot basis for one year. The scheme will provide funds to 80 forest divisions across ten states that were initially identified based on data from recurring human-tiger conflicts.
This will be used for technical interventions to preserve and monitor tigers and co-predators, to strengthen forest managers to deal with conflict caused by technology, to collaborate with civil society and professional veterinarians, and to expand the prey base.
The initiative will be executed on the ground by state forest department Chief Wildlife Wardens, in close collaboration with the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). When asked about the initial rollout of the pilot, a government official stated that the NTCA was finalising the list of forest and wildlife divisions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
QUESTION 11
With reference to the rare earth magnets, consider the following statements:
1. They are a crucial component in electric vehicle motors.
2. Russia controls over 90 per cent of global processing capacity for the magnets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
India stated it had communicated with China on the supply of rare earth magnets, as Beijing has imposed export limits.
China, which controls more than 90% of worldwide processing capacity for magnets used in autos, clean energy, and home appliances, imposed restrictions in April forcing companies to acquire import permits from Beijing. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
While rare earth magnets are essential components in electric vehicle motors, they are also required in equipment such as power windows and audio speakers found in gasoline or diesel-powered vehicles. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
According to industry estimates, India’s car sector bought 460 tonnes of rare earth magnets, largely from China, in the fiscal year ending March 31, and plans to import 700 tonnes valued at $30 million this year.
QUESTION 12
With reference to the tiger reserves, consider the following pairs:
1. Palamau Tiger Reserve – Mizoram
2. Sariska Tiger Reserve – Haryana
3. Madhav Tiger Reserve – Assam
How many of the pairs given above are correctly marked?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Tiger Reserve | Region | Description |
|---|---|---|
Palamau Tiger Reserve | Jharkhand | The Palamau Tiger Reserve is among one of the nine original tiger reserves in India and the only one in the state of Jharkhand |
Sariska Tiger Reserve | Rajasthan | Sariska National Park is a tiger reserve in Alwar district, Rajasthan |
Madhav Tiger Reserve | Madhya Pradesh | The Madhav Tiger Reserve is situated on the northern fringe of the Central Highlands of India forming a part of the Upper Vindhyan Hills intermixed with plateaus, and valley sections. Madhav Tiger Reserve is situated in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh in Shivpuri District, very close to the Shivpuri township This was notified as a National Park in the year 1958. |
QUESTION 13
The Banakacherla reservoir project was recently in the news. It is the water dispute between:
(a) Goa and Maharashtra
(b) Odisha and Telangana
(c) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
(d) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Telangana Chief Minister A Revanth Reddy has challenged former Chief Minister and Bharat Rashtra Samithi (BRS) leader K Chandrashekar Rao to a discussion in the state Assembly over the contentious Banakacherla reservoir project. It is the most recent water dispute between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
The Banakacherla reservoir project aims to transform Andhra Pradesh’s drought-prone Rayalaseema area into arable land.
According to the idea, the first phase would be to increase the capacity of the Polavaram Right Main Canal from 17,500 to 38,000 cusecs, allowing Godavari water to be transferred to Krishna.
QUESTION 14
Where is the Clarion-Clipperton Zone found?
(a) In the Antarctic Ocean
(b) In the low Earth orbit (LEO) where astronauts primarily travel
(c) Between troposphere and stratosphere
(d) In the Pacific Ocean
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Scientists have been fascinated by the mystery of dark matter for decades, thinking that it uses gravitational attraction to hold galaxies together. Recently, an exciting discovery has shed light on another unseen phenomena: dark oxygen.
Dark oxygen is found well below the ocean’s surface. A recent study published in Nature Geoscience reveals that oxygen is released from mineral deposits located 4,000 meters (13,000 feet) below the surface in the Pacific Ocean’s Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ).
This depth is almost half of Mount Everest’s height.
QUESTION 15
Consider the following pairs:
1. Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary : Sikkim
2. Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary – Maharashtra
3. Kuno National Park – Madhya Pradesh
4. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary – Kerala
Which of the pairs given above are not correctly matched?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All of the above
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary renamed on 25 May 2004, formerly known as the Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary or Hollongapar Reserve Forest, is an isolated protected area of evergreen forest located in Jorhat district of Assam, India.
QUESTION 16
These migratory birds, locally known as ‘Kahuaipuina,’ arrive in northeastern India, particularly in Manipur and Nagaland, in large numbers during October.
Which birds are being referred to in the above lines?
(a) Amur Falcons
(b) Rosy Pelican
(c) Black-crowned Night Heron
(d) Siberian Cranes
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Amur Falcons (Falco amurensis) – These migratory visitors, locally known as ‘Kahuaipuina,’ arrive in northeastern India, particularly in Manipur and Nagaland, in large numbers during October. They are on their southbound migration from their breeding grounds in northern China, eastern Mongolia, and far eastern Russia. During their stopover, which lasts three to four weeks, the falcons build fat reserves by foraging on termites before continuing their journey to their wintering grounds in South Africa.
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