Daily Prelims MCQs - Current Affairs - 4th August 2025

Welcome to today’s handpicked set of Multiple-Choice Welcome to last week’s (28 July – 4 August) handpicked set of 15 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) curated from the most relevant and high-impact current affairs. Designed especially for UPSC Prelims preparation, these questions bridge the gap between dynamic news events and static concepts — just the way UPSC frames them in the exam.

Each question is backed by clear explanations and source references, helping you not only test your knowledge but also strengthen conceptual clarity and develop contextual understanding.

This set cover a wide range of topics including: Patalpani-Kalakund railway line, surrogacy in India, Kavach system, Kurds, Gangaikonda Cholapuram Shiva temple, POSH Act, FIDE Women’s World Cup 2025, 71st National Film Awards, Piprahwa Gems, 1997 Kyoto Protocol and more...

Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).

QUESTION 1

With respect to the Sardar Sarovar Dam, consider the following statements:

1. It is classified as a concrete gravity dam.

2. The dam produces hydroelectric power that is environmentally friendly.

3. It has been constructed on the Tapi River in Gujarat.

4. The dam supplies irrigation water exclusively to Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.

How many of these statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer (b)

Explanation:

Recently, during the monsoon season, Sardar Sarovar Narmada Nigam Limited (SSNNL) opened five out of the 30 radial gates of the dam located in Narmada district to allow a “safe rise” in the reservoir water level. The dam’s water level rose from 131 meters to nearly 135 meters within 24 hours, approaching its Full Reservoir Level (FRL) of 138.68 meters.

Key facts about the Sardar Sarovar Dam include:

• It is a concrete gravity dam, extending 1210 meters (approximately 3970 feet) in length and reaching a height of 163 meters from its deepest foundation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Contrary to statement 3, the dam is built over the Narmada River, not the Tapi River.

• The dam is a multipurpose infrastructure supporting irrigation, drinking water supply, tourism, and hydroelectric power generation. It produces 1450 MW of clean hydroelectric energy, averaging 3500 million units annually, valued at roughly Rs. 1575 crore. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• While statement 4 mentions only Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra, the dam also supplies irrigation water to Rajasthan, so this statement is incorrect.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following conditions contribute to the generation of tsunamis caused by earthquakes?

1. The earthquake must occur underwater, displacing the seabed.

2. The earthquake should result from “normal” faulting.

3. The earthquake’s magnitude should exceed 7.0 on the Richter scale.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer (d)

Explanation:

A recent earthquake of magnitude 8.8 near Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula generated tsunami waves reaching heights of up to 16 feet. These waves traveled across the Pacific, impacting places like Hawaii and the northern California coast.

Key factors that influence whether an earthquake triggers a tsunami include:

1. The event must be marine-based, involving significant displacement of the ocean floor. Additionally, such earthquakes are usually shallow, as shallow quakes transfer more energy to the surface compared to deeper quakes, which lose energy while traveling upwards. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

2. Tsunami-generating earthquakes typically arise from reverse faulting—where compression forces cause the upper block to move upward relative to the lower block—rather than from normal faults. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

3. Earthquakes with a magnitude greater than 7.0 are generally capable of producing tsunamis due to the vast energy they release. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION 3

Regarding the Patalpani-Kalakund railway line, consider the following statements:

1. The proposal to construct this railway line was put forward by Maharaja Tukoji Rao Holkar II, who ruled from 1844 to 1886.

2. The line is a narrow-gauge section that Indian Railways preserved in 2018.

3. This railway line passes through two states, namely Karnataka and Maharashtra.

How many of these statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (a)

Explanation:

The heritage train services on the Patalpani-Kalakund line were recently resumed by Western Railway after a brief pause caused by a decline in tourist traffic.

This railway segment, measuring 9.5 kilometers, lies within the Dr Ambedkar Nagar (formerly Mhow)-Khandwa section of Madhya Pradesh. It is recognized as one of the six historic railway lines of Indian Railways, although the Railway Board has yet to grant it official certification. This means statement 3 is incorrect, as the line does not extend into Karnataka or Maharashtra.

Regarding gauge, the line is actually a meter-gauge track rather than narrow gauge. It was preserved in its original gauge in 2018 because the challenging terrain prevented its conversion to broad gauge. The inaugural heritage train departed on December 25, 2018. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

Historically, the need for this railway connection emerged during the 19th century when the princely state of Indore, governed by the Holkars, became a British protectorate in 1818. Maharaja Tukoji Rao Holkar II, who ruled from 1844 to 1886, advocated for constructing a railway linking Indore to Khandwa, which included the Patalpani-Kalakund stretch. He pledged a loan of Rs 100 lakh for 101 years and offered land free of cost for the project in 1870. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

QUESTION 4

Which of the following legislations provide the legal framework governing surrogacy in India?

1. The Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Act, 2021

2. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021

Choose the correct option:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

Explanation:

The Supreme Court has recently reserved judgment in several petitions contesting the age restrictions placed on couples who wish to pursue surrogacy, particularly for those who had initiated the surrogacy process prior to the enactment of the current legal provisions.

Both the Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Act, 2021 and the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 collectively establish the comprehensive legal framework for surrogacy in the country.

These statutes set forth specific age criteria for individuals opting for surrogacy:

• Married women intending to have a child must be aged between 23 and 50 years,

• Married men should be between 26 and 55 years,

• Single women can pursue surrogacy if they fall within the age bracket of 35 to 45 years.

QUESTION 5

Regarding the Kavach system, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system developed entirely within India.

2. It supports the Loco Pilot by enforcing speed restrictions through automatic braking if the driver does not respond appropriately.

3. The system was designated as the National ATP system in the year 2020.

How many of these statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (c)

Explanation:

Indian Railways places paramount importance on safety and has introduced Kavach, a fully indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system. This system was designed, developed, and manufactured domestically. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

The Kavach technology assists the Loco Pilot by ensuring trains adhere to prescribed speed limits. If the driver fails to take corrective action, the system automatically applies brakes, preventing accidents. It also enhances safety during adverse weather conditions. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

In July 2020, the Kavach system was officially adopted as the National ATP system by Indian Railways. Its implementation is ongoing in phases across the network. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION 6

The Kurds, often referred to as the largest ethnic group without a state, have recently been in international news. They primarily inhabit which of the following regions?

1. Highlands of southern and eastern Turkey

2. Northern Iraq

3. Northeastern Syria

4. Northwestern Iran

5. Southern Egypt

6. Northern Oman

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4, 5 and 6

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (d)

Explanation:

Amid rising tensions triggered by Israeli airstrikes in Damascus, General Mazloum Abdi, a prominent Kurdish figure and leader of the Syrian Democratic Forces (SDF), has come into focus. He also holds a senior leadership role within the Democratic Autonomous Administration of North and East Syria (DAANES), highlighting the Kurdish role in the geopolitics of the region.

About the Kurds:

• The Kurds are widely regarded as the world’s largest stateless ethnic group.

• Their core population is concentrated in:

  • The highland regions of southern and eastern Turkey

  • Northern Iraq

  • Northeastern Syria

  • Northwestern Iran

• Additionally, smaller Kurdish communities are present in southern Armenia, eastern Iran, Lebanon, Kazakhstan, and Georgia.

• Importantly, they are not present in Southern Egypt or Northern Oman, hence, statements 5 and 6 incorrect.

Cultural and Linguistic Identity:

• The Kurds trace their roots back approximately 2,500 years, although their emergence as a distinct identity occurred in the 7th century CE, around the time they adopted Islam.

• Linguistically, Kurdish is related to Persian and Pashto, with regional dialects such as Kurmanji (Latin script, common in Turkey) and Sorani (Arabic script, common in Iraq and Iran).

QUESTION 7

Which ruler is associated with the following achievements?

1. Defeated the Pala dynasty of Bengal.

2. Established Gangaikonda Cholapuram as the capital city.

3. Commanded a successful naval campaign to regions in South East Asia.

Select the correct option:

(a) Vijayalaya Chola

(b) Rajendra Chola III

(c) Rajaraja I

(d) Rajendra I

Answer (d)

Explanation:

On July 27, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid a visit to the sacred Gangaikonda Cholapuram Shiva temple in Tamil Nadu. This temple, recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, stands as a prime example of Chola architectural excellence and symbolizes the political and military strength of the Chola Empire.

The Aadi Thiruvathirai Festival held this year also marks 1,000 years since the historic naval expedition of Rajendra Chola I to Southeast Asia—an event that expanded the Chola influence across regions such as Sumatra, Malaysia, and Myanmar.

Rajendra Chola I, who ruled from 1014 to 1044 CE, is credited with:

• Defeating the Pala Kingdom of Bengal during a campaign that reached the Ganga river,

• Founding the city of Gangaikonda Cholapuram as a commemorative capital,

• Constructing a grand temple and a symbolic water reservoir named Cholagangam, intended as a ‘Ganga-jalamayam jayasthambham’ (a “liquid pillar of victory”), and

• Leading powerful maritime campaigns, securing Chola supremacy in the Indian Ocean.

QUESTION 8

The technique known as “passive acoustic recording monitoring” has recently been employed in which of the following contexts?

(a) Survey of grassland bird species in Kaziranga

(b) Operations aboard the International Space Station

(c) A technological upgrade in ISRO’s PSLV launch vehicle

(d) Audio surveillance capability in DRDO’s Pralay missile

Answer (a)

Explanation:

Between March 18 and May 25, a team comprising forest staff, scientists, and conservationists carried out a detailed assessment of the grassland bird population in Kaziranga National Park, marking the first-ever census of grassland birds in the region.

During this landmark survey, a total of 43 species of grassland birds were documented. Among these, according to the IUCN Red List, there was 1 Critically Endangered species, 2 Endangered species, and 6 classified as Vulnerable.

A notable innovation in this census was the introduction of passive acoustic recording monitoring—a technique that captures bird calls and sounds without human interference. This non-invasive method was highlighted by Dr. Sonali Ghosh, Director of Kaziranga National Park, and even received mention in the Mann Ki Baat program as a key technological advancement in ecological monitoring.

QUESTION 9

Among the following tiger reserves, arrange them in descending order based on their tiger density (from highest to lowest):

1. Corbett Tiger Reserve

2. Bandipur Tiger Reserve

3. Kaziranga Tiger Reserve

Choose the correct sequence:

(a) 1 → 2 → 3

(b) 2 → 3 → 1

(c) 3 → 1 → 2

(d) 3 → 2 → 1

Answer (a)

Explanation:

A recent summary report titled ‘Status of Tigers in the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve’ for the year 2024 was released, highlighting data from Phase IV tiger monitoring carried out in the Eastern Assam, Nagaon, and Biswanath Wildlife Divisions. This initiative was undertaken under the guidance of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

According to the findings, the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve currently houses 148 tigers, showing a steady increase from 104 in 2022, 99 in 2018, and 96 in 2014. The reserve’s director, Sonali Ghosh, emphasized that Kaziranga now ranks third globally in terms of tiger density, behind Corbett Tiger Reserve (Uttarakhand) and Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka).

Thus, when ordered by tiger density from highest to lowest, the correct sequence is:Corbett → Bandipur → Kaziranga,

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 — commonly known as the POSH Act — consider the following statements:

1. Under the Act, it is mandatory for both private and public organizations to establish an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) to handle grievances related to sexual harassment.

2. The Supreme Court recently declined to admit a petition that sought to bring political parties within the ambit of the POSH Act.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Answer (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The POSH Act obligates every workplace—whether in the public or private sector—to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) to investigate and redress complaints of sexual harassment. This requirement applies across a wide spectrum of organizations, regardless of their size or nature.

• Statement 2 is correct: Recently, the Supreme Court refused to entertain a plea that urged the application of the POSH Act to political parties. The Court stated that such a policy matter falls within the legislative domain and is not something the judiciary can impose directly.

The petition had highlighted that although the POSH Act defines “workplace” and “employee” broadly, political parties often lack ICCs, even though women, especially at grassroots levels, are frequently exposed to sexual harassment in these settings.

QUESTION 11

Consider the following statements regarding recent developments in Indian chess:

1. Divya Deshmukh triumphed over Koneru Humpy to secure the FIDE Women’s World Cup 2025 title, becoming the first Indian woman to ever win this prestigious event.

2. As per the FIDE Open ratings list, three Indian players currently rank among the top six globally.

3. Koneru Humpy continues to be the highest-ranked Indian woman in FIDE’s global rankings.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: While Divya Deshmukh did win the FIDE Women’s World Cup 2025 in Batumi, Georgia, she is not the first Indian woman to clinch the highest title in chess. In fact, she became the fourth Indian woman to do so. She began the tournament as the 15th seed and gained 15 rating points, reaching a FIDE rating of 2478 and entering the top 15 women players globally.

• Statement 2 is correct: The latest FIDE Open ratings list places three Indian players in the top six: R. Praggnanandhaa at world no. 4 (rating: 2779), followed by Gukesh at no. 5 and Arjun Erigaisi at no. 6 (both with 2776 rating points).

• Statement 3 is correct: Despite her loss to Divya Deshmukh in the final, Koneru Humpy, with a rating of 2535, remains the top-ranked Indian woman in the FIDE rankings. She currently holds the 6th position globally, just ahead of Harika Dronavalli (ranked 12th) and Divya Deshmukh.

QUESTION 12

At the 71st National Film Awards, which film was honored with both the Best Director and Best Cinematography awards?

(a) Ullozhukku

(b) The Kerala Story

(c) 12th Fail

(d) Sam Bahadur

Answer (b)

Explanation:

The film The Kerala Story received two prominent honors at the 71st National Film Awards — Best Direction and Best Cinematography. Director Sudipto Sen was awarded for Best Direction, while Prasantanu Mohapatra earned the award for Best Cinematography for his work on the same film.

The decision drew significant political reactions in Kerala, where both the ruling Communist Party of India (Marxist) and the Opposition Congress voiced strong criticism over the film being recognized in these top categories. Despite its controversial nature and polarized reception, The Kerala Story secured critical acclaim in these technical aspects at the national level.

QUESTION 13

Recently in the news, the term ‘Piprahwa Gems’ refers to which of the following?

(a) A lost cache of Mughal-era miniature gemstones

(b) Ancient currency used during the Mauryan period

(c) Sacred relics linked to Lord Buddha

(d) A contemporary diamond jewelry brand from South India

Answer (c)

Explanation:

The Piprahwa Gems are a historically significant collection of Buddhist relics that were originally excavated in 1898 by William Claxton Peppé, a British estate manager. The discovery was made at a stupa located in Piprahwa village in Uttar Pradesh’s Siddharthnagar district, near the Indo-Nepal border.

Among the items unearthed were 349 gemstones, sacred caskets, a coffer, and relics believed to include the ashes and bones of Gautama Buddha. At the time, the Viceroy of India, Lord Elgin, gifted the sacred remains to King Rama V of Siam (modern-day Thailand). Meanwhile, a substantial portion of the remaining collection was sent to the Imperial Museum in Kolkata, now known as the Indian Museum, where these items are still housed.

A smaller part of the collection stayed within the Peppé family for generations. Eventually, in 2013, these antiquities came into the possession of Chris Peppé, a descendant of William Peppé. In May 2025, the gems resurfaced when Sotheby’s in Hong Kong listed them for auction with an estimated price exceeding $100 million. Following this, the Ministry of Culture of India announced their successful return to the country, made possible through a notable public-private collaboration.

QUESTION 14

In light of the recent clarification by the International Court of Justice (ICJ) concerning the status of the 1997 Kyoto Protocol, evaluate the following statements:

1. The adoption of the Paris Agreement in 2016 rendered the Kyoto Protocol obsolete or inoperative.

2. The ICJ has, for the first time, delivered a definitive legal interpretation regarding the continued applicability of the Kyoto Protocol after the commencement of the Paris Agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (b)

Explanation:

In a landmark decision issued recently, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) addressed the legal status of the 1997 Kyoto Protocol within the framework of current international climate obligations. Contrary to the prevailing assumption that the Kyoto Protocol had either lapsed or become dormant following the enforcement of the 2015 Paris Agreement (which took effect in 2016), the ICJ has explicitly affirmed that the Kyoto Protocol remains valid and legally binding.

This is a significant development, as it represents the first authoritative declaration on the Protocol’s legal standing in the era following the adoption of the Paris Agreement. Although many believed that the Kyoto Protocol had effectively ended—especially after the conclusion of its second commitment phase in 2020—the ICJ clarified that it was never formally repealed or annulled and thus continues to be part of international law.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Because the ICJ has confirmed that the Kyoto Protocol is still in effect.

• Statement 2 is correct: As this ruling marks the first formal legal affirmation of the Protocol's validity in the post-Paris period.

QUESTION 15

Consider the following statements:

1. India ranks as the fourth-largest domestic aviation market globally, following the United States, United Kingdom, and France.

2. Maharashtra has the highest number of operational airports among Indian states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (d)

Explanation:

India currently holds the position of the third-largest domestic aviation market in the world, trailing only behind the United States and China. During the World Air Transport Summit held at Bharat Mandapam in June, Prime Minister Narendra Modi highlighted the government’s efforts to develop world-class airport infrastructure. He also noted that Indian airports now collectively have an annual passenger handling capacity of 500 million.

As of now, there are 162 operational airports across the country. The Government of India introduced the Greenfield Airports Policy in 2008 to promote the development of new airports. Furthermore, the Ministry of Civil Aviation launched the Regional Connectivity Scheme – Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (RCS-UDAN) in October 2016. This initiative aims to improve air connectivity from unserved and underserved airports and make air travel more affordable for the general population.

Answering a question in Lok Sabha on July 31, Minister of State for Civil Aviation, Murlidhar Mohol, stated that Uttar Pradesh leads the country with the highest number of operational airports at 17. Maharashtra follows with 15, and Gujarat has 13 airports. Other states with significant numbers of airports include Uttarakhand (12), Karnataka (10), Madhya Pradesh (8), Rajasthan and Assam (7 each), and Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh (6 each).

Previous Daily UPSC Prelims MCQs Set

• 2nd August 2025 - History & Culture MCQs

• 1st August 2025 - International Relations MCQs

• 31st July 2025 - Polity MCQs

• 30th July 2025 - Economy MCQs

• 29th July 2025 - Sci-Tech, Environment and Geography MCQs

Previous Week Current Affairs MCQs Set

• 28th July 2025 - Current Affairs MCQs

• 21st July 2025 - Current Affairs MCQs

• 14th July 2025 – Current Affairs MCQs

• 7th July 2025 – Current Affairs MCQs

Click for Daily Current Affairs Summary

Click for Daily UPSC Mains Question

Click for NCERTs Pdfs

Click for Daily Quotes:

Stay updated with the latest news by joining our Telegram channel – The PRESS Pad , and follow us on Instagram and X.