Daily Prelims MCQs – Current Affairs – 28th July 2025

Welcome to last week’s (21 July – 27 July) handpicked set of 15 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) curated from the most relevant and high-impact current affairs. Designed especially for UPSC Prelims preparation, these questions bridge the gap between dynamic news events and static concepts — just the way UPSC frames them in the exam.

Each question is backed by clear explanations and source references, helping you not only test your knowledge but also strengthen conceptual clarity and develop contextual understanding.

This set cover a wide range of topics including: Prasat Ta Muen Thom, AdFalciVax, ICJ, National Sports Governance Bill, Paikas in the history of Odisha, Gajapati dynasty, Kamchatka Peninsula, ULPGM, GLP-1, NISAR, Durand Cup and more...

Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).

QUESTION 1

Arrange the following states in India in descending order based on the length of their National Highway network:

1. Rajasthan

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Maharashtra

Choose the correct sequence from the codes below:

(a) 1 — 2 — 4 — 3

(b) 1 — 4 — 2 — 3

(c) 4 — 2 — 3 — 1

(d) 4 — 3 — 1 — 2

Answer (d)

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) continues to strengthen India’s infrastructure through focused initiatives and large-scale projects. At present, India boasts a vast road network exceeding 63 lakh kilometres in total length.

• The length of the National Highway (NH) network stands at approximately 1,46,342 kilometres, marking a significant increase from the 91,287 km recorded in March 2014. This represents an expansion of over 55,000 km within the last ten years.

• Among Indian states, Maharashtra holds the top position with the longest stretch of National Highways measuring 18,462 km.

• It is followed by Uttar Pradesh, which has 12,123 km of NH, then Rajasthan with 10,733 km, and Madhya Pradesh comes next with 9,263 km.

• Therefore, the correct descending order of National Highway lengths in these states is: Maharashtra > Uttar Pradesh > Rajasthan > Madhya Pradesh.

QUESTION 2

Prasat Ta Muen Thom, an ancient temple that recently featured in the news, is situated on the border of which two countries?

(a) Thailand and Cambodia

(b) Laos and Thailand

(c) Vietnam and Laos

(d) Cambodia and Vietnam

Answer (a)

Explanation:

• In the wake of violent clashes resulting in the deaths of at least 11 Thai civilians, the Thai military carried out strikes targeting Cambodian military positions along their disputed border region.

• Diplomatic tensions between Thailand and Cambodia escalated, with both nations accusing each other of provoking the violence, leading to a downgrade in their diplomatic relations just one day before the clashes.

• The longstanding conflict between the two countries is deeply rooted in historical territorial disputes dating back to colonial times, including disagreements over several Hindu temples located along their shared boundary.

• Thai authorities alleged that Cambodian forces used drones to surveil Thai troops stationed near the Khmer Hindu temple Prasat Ta Muen Thom.

About Prasat Ta Muen Thom:

• This significant temple complex lies roughly 400 kilometers northeast of Bangkok, straddling the border between Thailand’s Surin province and Cambodia’s Oddar Meanchey province.

• Constructed under the reign of King Jayavarman VII, the site includes three main structures. The central temple, Prasat Ta Muen Thom, is primarily made of sandstone and contains a shivalinga along with associated libraries.

• The complex also encompasses Prasat Ta Muen, a Mahayana Buddhist sanctuary intended as a shelter for travelers, and Prasat Ta Muen Tot, which served as a shrine dedicated to healthcare for the local population.

QUESTION 3

The term “AdFalciVax”, recently making headlines, refers to:

(a) A vaccine developed to combat malaria

(b) A newly launched cryptocurrency

(c) A distant celestial body discovered in deep space

(d) An advanced model of unmanned aerial surveillance drone

Answer (a)

Explanation:

• The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has introduced a new candidate vaccine named AdFalciVax, which shows significant potential in the fight against malaria.

• The vaccine is currently in the developmental phase, with ICMR planning to collaborate with private pharmaceutical firms to carry out clinical trials, large-scale manufacturing, and commercial distribution.

• AdFalciVax is specifically engineered to target two antigens of Plasmodium falciparum, the deadliest species of the malaria parasite globally and the primary cause of malaria in many regions.

• However, in the Indian context, a majority of malaria cases are attributed to Plasmodium vivax, a different species. AdFalciVax does not offer protection against this strain, which highlights the need for broader vaccine strategies tailored to regional parasite patterns.

• Malaria is a mosquito-borne parasitic disease, marked by symptoms such as fever, chills, sweating, vomiting, and diarrhoea, and in severe cases, may lead to seizures, lung complications, organ failure, or death.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the International Court of Justice (ICJ), consider the following statements:

1. The ICJ consists of 9 judges, each serving a three-year term, elected by both the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council.

2. Judges serving on the ICJ can be re-elected after their term ends.

3. The election of judges is conducted in New York during the autumn session of the UN General Assembly.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (b)

Explanation:

• The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the ICJ is composed of 15 judges, not 9, and they are elected for nine-year terms, not three-year terms. These judges are selected through a process that involves both the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council, ensuring broad international representation.

• Statement 2 is correct: Judges on the ICJ are eligible for re-election after the completion of their term, which allows for continuity if deemed necessary by member states.

• Statement 3 is also correct: Elections to the ICJ take place in New York during the annual autumn session of the General Assembly, coinciding with deliberations by the Security Council.

QUESTION 5

The recently introduced National Sports Governance Bill in the Lok Sabha outlines two key structural reforms in Indian sports administration:

1. Establishment of a National Sports Board with wide-ranging authority to regulate sports federations, excluding the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).

2. Creation of a National Sports Tribunal with civil court powers to adjudicate issues including athlete selection and sports body elections.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (b)

Explanation:

• The National Sports Governance Bill, presented in Lok Sabha by Union Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya, proposes a comprehensive overhaul of India’s sports governance framework.

• One of the major provisions includes the formation of a National Sports Board vested with authority to frame regulations and monitor the functioning of all national sports federations.

  • Importantly, this includes the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)—contrary to Statement 1, which incorrectly claims its exclusion.

  • Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

• Another key reform is the proposal to establish a National Sports Tribunal, empowered with the status and authority equivalent to a civil court.

  • This body will address a broad spectrum of disputes, including athlete selection issues, election-related conflicts within federations, and other internal governance matters.

  • Appeals from this tribunal’s decisions can be taken directly to the Supreme Court. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Paikas in the history of Odisha, consider the following statements:

1. They constituted a group of military retainers drawn from various social backgrounds and were enlisted by the Gajapati rulers of Odisha starting in the 16th century.

2. In return for their martial duties, they were granted hereditary, rent-exempt landholdings known as nish-kar jagirs, which they cultivated during times of peace.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

Explanation:

• The Paikas (derived from paiko, meaning foot soldiers) were a distinct class of military retainers in Odisha. They were recruited not from a single caste or community but from multiple socio-economic groups, and their tradition of service dates back to the 16th century under the Gajapati dynasty.

• These retainers rendered military service to the monarch and were compensated with hereditary land grants exempt from taxation, called nish-kar jagirs. During peacetime, these lands were cultivated by the Paikas themselves, allowing them to sustain their livelihood.

• The Paika Rebellion of 1817, considered by some historians as one of the earliest armed uprisings against British rule in India, is closely linked to their legacy. Recent debate arose following the omission of the rebellion from the NCERT Class VIII history textbook, which was criticised by Odisha leaders, including former Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik. NCERT has since stated that the episode will be included in the second volume of the textbook expected later in the year.

• The rebellion reflected broader rural unrest in the 19th century, particularly due to British policies that disrupted traditional social structures, landholding patterns, and local governance systems.

QUESTION 7

The Kamchatka Peninsula, which was recently in the news following a sequence of significant seismic events, is located in:

(a) Japan

(b) Russia

(c) China

(d) Antarctica

Answer (b)

Explanation:

• A powerful earthquake with a magnitude of 6.6 occurred off the coast of Kamchatka, a remote region situated in the far eastern part of Russia, as per data from the German Research Centre for Geosciences (GFZ). The earthquake originated at a shallow depth of 10 kilometers. Initially, the quake was estimated to have a magnitude of 6.2, but this was later revised.

• Shortly after the first event, another strong tremor was recorded in the same vicinity, measuring 6.7 in magnitude, also at a depth of 10 km, based on GFZ information.

• According to the European Mediterranean Seismological Centre (EMSC), this second seismic event was later updated to a magnitude of 7.4, aligning with GFZ’s revised estimate.

• Following these seismic activities, the US National Tsunami Warning Center issued a tsunami alert for certain parts of Russia, and a tsunami watch was also declared for the U.S. state of Hawaii as a precautionary measure.

QUESTION 8

With regard to the Unmanned Aerial Vehicle Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM)-V3, consider the following statements:

1. It features a high-definition dual-channel seeker enabling it to engage a diverse range of targets.

2. It is designed to be fired exclusively in plain terrains and is unsuitable for high-altitude operations.

3. The missile is capable of operating during both day and night.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (b)

Explanation:

• The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently conducted a successful test-firing of the ULPGM-V3, a precision-guided missile launched from unmanned aerial vehicles, at a test site in Andhra Pradesh.

• This latest version is an upgraded variant of the earlier ULPGM-V2 missile, incorporating several advanced features.

• The ULPGM-V3 is equipped with a high-definition dual-channel seeker, which allows it to precisely strike a wide spectrum of targets, making statement 1 correct.

• Contrary to statement 2, the missile is designed to operate effectively in both plain and high-altitude environments, thus statement 2 is incorrect.

• Additionally, it offers day-and-night operational capability and includes a two-way data link that permits target updates even after launch, confirming that statement 3 is correct.

• The missile can be armed with three different modular warheads suited for specific missions: an anti-armour warhead capable of penetrating modern Rolled Homogeneous Armour (RHA) and Explosive Reactive Armour (ERA), a penetration-cum-blast warhead ideal for bunker destruction, and a pre-fragmentation warhead that creates a high-lethality zone.

QUESTION 9

With reference to GLP-1 (Glucagon-Like Peptide-1), consider the following statements:

1. It acts both as an incretin hormone and as a neurotransmitter.

2. It influences brain centers involved in the regulation of hunger and the feeling of satiety.

3. Its primary effects on the pancreas and the brain play a significant role in managing blood glucose and body weight.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. GLP-1 serves dual functions—it is both an incretin hormone, which is released from the small intestine after food intake, and a neurotransmitter, produced also in regions of the hindbrain. It aids in glucose regulation by enhancing insulin release and lowering glucagon levels when blood glucose is elevated. This glucose-dependent action is known as the incretin effect.

• Statement 2 is correct. GLP-1 impacts certain areas of the brain that control hunger and fullness. Through its activity on these neural centers, it signals the body to reduce food intake, thus playing a key role in appetite control.

• Statement 3 is correct. Although GLP-1 receptors are found in multiple organs including the liver, kidney, and cardiovascular system, its most clinically significant actions—regarding glucose control and weight regulation—occur via its effects on the pancreas and the brain.

• Of notable significance, Lotte Bjerre Knudsen, a Danish scientist, co-developed the first long-acting GLP-1 receptor agonist used in treating type 2 diabetes and obesity. She, along with Joel Habener from Harvard Medical School and Svetlana Mojsov of Rockefeller University, was honored with the Lasker-DeBakey Clinical Medical Research Award for their pioneering work on GLP-1-based medications, which have revolutionized obesity treatment.

QUESTION 10

Which of the following nations are located in West Africa?

1. Niger

2. Kenya

3. Ghana

4. Burkina Faso

5. Rwanda

Select the correct option using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 5

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer (d)

Explanation:

• On July 15, a tragic incident occurred in Niger, where two Indian migrant workers lost their lives and another was kidnapped during a terrorist attack at their worksite. This event took place in a nation that is officially classified as part of West Africa.

• The West African region consists of 16 countries, which include:

  • Niger, Burkina Faso, Ghana, Benin, Cabo Verde, Côte d’Ivoire, The Gambia, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Liberia, Mali, Mauritania, Nigeria, Senegal, Sierra Leone, and Togo.

• Kenya and Rwanda, on the other hand, are situated in East Africa and are not part of the West African geopolitical grouping.

• Hence, among the countries listed, only Niger (1), Ghana (3), and Burkina Faso (4) are correctly classified as West African nations.

QUESTION 11

Which among the following is currently the costliest Earth observation satellite ever built?

(a) HySIS

(b) Envisat

(c) Terra

(d) NISAR

Answer (d)

Explanation:

• The NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite, a collaborative mission between NASA and ISRO, is set to be launched on July 30 at 5:40 PM IST from Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.

• This advanced Earth observation satellite is designed to deliver high-resolution data of Earth’s surface—tracking changes in landforms, ice cover, vegetation, and detecting events such as earthquakes, landslides, and other natural phenomena over time.

• NISAR will be carried to space aboard the GSLV-F16 launch vehicle and is engineered to monitor changes in Earth's topography with great precision.

• With a development cost of $1.5 billion, NISAR holds the distinction of being the most expensive Earth observation satellite ever developed to date.

• This mission not only exemplifies international cooperation in space technology but also marks a significant leap in Earth monitoring capabilities for both environmental and disaster management purposes.

QUESTION 12

Which country has recently announced its intention to officially recognise the State of Palestine in September?

(a) Russia

(b) United States of America

(c) Israel

(d) France

Answer (d)

Explanation:

• In a significant diplomatic move, France has declared that it will formally extend recognition to Palestine as a sovereign state in September, coinciding with the United Nations General Assembly session.

• The announcement was made by President Emmanuel Macron, who described the step as an essential measure in advancing the cause of peace in the Middle East.

• This declaration has been met with strong opposition from both Israel and the United States, who have expressed serious reservations about the implications of unilateral recognition.

• The French President’s position underscores a broader European concern regarding the stagnation of the Israeli-Palestinian peace process and reflects growing international calls for a two-state solution.

QUESTION 13

India has been experiencing a steep rise in coconut oil prices in recent times. Which of the following factors are contributing to this surge?

1. Reduced output in major producing nations such as the Philippines and Indonesia

2. Increased diversion of coconut oil for biodiesel manufacturing

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

Explanation:

• The global market for coconut oil is currently facing tight supply conditions, which has pushed up prices significantly. Two key reasons behind this are:

  • Decline in production in countries like the Philippines and Indonesia, largely attributed to El Niño-induced droughts. These two nations are among the largest producers and exporters of coconut oil, which is extracted from the dried kernel or flesh of coconuts.

  • A notable shift in usage of coconut oil towards biodiesel production has further constrained the quantity available for edible consumption, adding to the upward pressure on prices.

• Tom Jose, Chairman of KSE Limited—India’s leading manufacturer of solvent-extracted coconut oil based in Irinjalakuda, Kerala—highlighted these factors, particularly pointing to the weather-driven fall in output from Southeast Asian suppliers.

• As a result, coconut oil has emerged as the costliest among all major cooking oils in recent months.

QUESTION 14

The term "Comet" recently appeared in the news. What is it?

(a) An AI-driven web browser

(b) An AI-powered missile

(c) An AI system for climate forecasting

(d) An AI application in healthcare

Answer (a)

Explanation:

• Earlier this month, Perplexity, known for its AI-based search technology, unveiled Comet, an AI-first web browser designed to delegate various online tasks to artificial intelligence agents on behalf of users. Currently, Comet is available in an early access version as part of the Perplexity Max subscription, which is priced at $200 per month.

• Early user feedback suggests that Comet represents a shift towards a new era of web browsing, where users assign tasks to AI agents who then navigate websites and complete objectives without direct user interaction with the sites themselves.

• The look and feel of Comet closely resemble Google Chrome because it is built on the Chromium framework, an open-source browser architecture maintained by Google. This framework is the foundation of popular browsers including Chrome, Microsoft Edge, and Opera. Comet supports Chrome extensions, bookmarks, and can sync user settings upon import.

• What sets Comet apart is its integration of Perplexity’s AI agents directly within the browser, enabling it to not only facilitate search but also proactively perform actions across multiple tabs, services, and platforms. This capability has led Perplexity to brand Comet as an “agentic browser”, emphasizing its role as an AI assistant for web navigation.

QUESTION 15

With reference to the Durand Cup, consider the following statements:

1. It holds the distinction of being the longest-running football tournament outside the British Isles.

2. The tournament derives its name from a British official, who is historically noted for delineating the controversial boundary between British India (present-day Pakistan) and Afghanistan.

3. Prior to 1940, the event was traditionally hosted every September in Delhi.

4. Mohun Bagan was the first civilian football club to participate in the competition.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Durand Cup, which recently marked its 134th edition in Kolkata, is recognized as the oldest surviving football tournament outside the United Kingdom.

• Statement 2 is correct: The tournament is named after Sir Mortimer Durand, a British diplomat best remembered for drawing the contentious Durand Line, the border demarcating British India (now Pakistan) and Afghanistan.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Contrary to the statement, the tournament was actually held every September in Shimla, not Delhi, until the year 1940. The matches were hosted at the picturesque Annandale grounds with full military ceremony.

• Statement 4 is correct: In 1922, Mohun Bagan, based in Calcutta, made history by becoming the first civilian club to participate in the tournament, paving the way for wider Indian involvement.

Previous Daily UPSC Prelims MCQs Set

• 26th July 2025 - History & Culture MCQs

• 25th July 2025 - International Relations MCQs

• 24th July 2025 - Polity MCQs

• 23rd July 2025 - Economy MCQs

• 22nd July 2025 - Science, Technology, Environment and Geography MCQs

• 19th July 2025 - History & Culture MCQs

Previous Week Current Affairs MCQs Set

• 21st July 2025 - Current Affairs MCQs

• 14th July 2025 – Current Affairs MCQs

• 7th July 2025 – Current Affairs MCQs

• 30th June 2025 - Current Affairs MCQs

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