Daily Prelims MCQs - Polity - 4th September

TPP
Sep 5
6 min read

Welcome to your Daily UPSC Prelims Current Affairs MCQs – 4th September 2025. This is part of our subject-wise daily series where Thursday is dedicated to Indian Polity, enabling aspirants to revise static constitutional provisions while staying updated with the latest judicial pronouncements and legislative developments.

Today’s set of 5 carefully framed polity questions integrates current affairs with core constitutional concepts, accompanied by detailed explanations that will help aspirants:

Strengthen conceptual clarity on important articles of the Constitution
Connect recent developments in governance, law, and judicial rulings with static polity topics
Practice Prelims-level elimination and analytical skills for UPSC 2026

Topics covered today include:

The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025 – provisions on removal of Ministers facing serious criminal charges
Judicial interpretation of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 and its scope
Powers, election, and tenure of the Vice-President of India
Citizenship by Registration under the Citizenship Act and related provisions
Recognition status of political parties and privileges of unrecognised parties

Stay consistent with these daily polity quizzes to strengthen your preparation for UPSC Prelims 2026, while simultaneously revising both static polity concepts and dynamic current affairs relevant to the exam.

Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).

QUESTION 1

The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025 has been introduced with the aim of ensuring that the Prime Minister, a Chief Minister, or any other Minister at the Union or State level is removed from office if they are arrested and held in custody for serious criminal charges. If enacted, this Bill would amend which of the following Articles of the Constitution?

Article 75
Article 84
Article 164
Article 239AA

Select the correct code:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer (d)

Explanation:

Recently, Home Minister Amit Shah introduced a notable Constitutional Amendment Bill in the Lok Sabha. The proposal seeks to address the issue of Ministers who face serious allegations of corruption or grave criminal offences and have been in custody for a continuous period of 30 days or more.
The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025, along with two supplementary statutory amendments to cover Union Territories, has been referred to a Joint Committee of Parliament for examination.
- A statutory amendment means changes in ordinary laws passed by Parliament, while a constitutional amendment modifies the Constitution itself.
As per analysis by PRS Legislative Research, the Bill introduces provisions to remove the Prime Minister, Chief Ministers of States, or other Ministers at both the Union and State levels, whenever they are arrested and detained for serious offences. These rules will also extend to the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
To achieve this, the Bill proposes to amend the following:
- Article 75 → Deals with the Union Council of Ministers.
- Article 164 → Governs the Council of Ministers in the States.
- Article 239AA → Relates specifically to special provisions for Delhi, including the role of its Council of Ministers.
It is important to note that Article 84, which lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament, is not part of this amendment package.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Right to Education (RTE) in India, consider the following statements:

The RTE Act establishes education as a fundamental right for every child between the ages of 6 and 14 and also lays down minimum norms for elementary schools.
The Right to Education can be restricted by imposing a condition related to age limits.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

Explanation:

Recently, the Madhya Pradesh High Court ruled in favor of an 11-year-old boy who was denied admission to Class 9 solely on the basis of his age. Despite his high IQ (Intelligence Quotient — a measure of cognitive ability) and strong academic record, the school had refused admission.
Justice Vishal Mishra observed that “Right to Education cannot be curtailed by imposing a condition regarding age limit.” This makes Statement 2 incorrect.

About the Right to Education Act (RTE)

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, commonly called the RTE Act, operationalizes Article 21A of the Constitution, which guarantees free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years.
The Act makes education a fundamental right for children in this age group and specifies minimum infrastructure and quality norms for elementary schools. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Additionally, it mandates that all private unaided schools reserve 25% of seats for children from disadvantaged groups, with costs reimbursed by the State under a public–private partnership model.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Vice-President of India, consider the following statements:

The Vice-President acts as the ex officio (by virtue of office) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and cannot hold any other office of profit.
The Vice-President occupies the third-highest elective office in the country after the President and the Prime Minister.
As per Article 67 of the Constitution, the Vice-President holds office for a fixed term of five years from the date of election.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (a)

Explanation:

The office of the Vice-President became vacant after the resignation of Jagdeep Dhankhar on July 21, and the Election Commission has scheduled fresh elections on September 9.
According to Article 66, the Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College comprising members of both Houses of Parliament through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
- Single transferable vote → A system where voters rank candidates in order of preference to ensure fairer representation.

Statement Analysis:

The Vice-President serves as the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and is barred from holding any other office of profit (a position offering financial gain under the government). Correct.
The Vice-President is constitutionally recognized as holding the second-highest elective office in India, just below the President, not the third. Incorrect.
Under Article 67, the Vice-President’s tenure is five years from the date he/she enters office, not from the date of election. Incorrect.

QUESTION 4

The Indian citizenship, as per the provisions relating to acquisition by Registration, includes which of the following categories?

Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in India for seven years.
Persons who are married to a citizen of India and who are ordinarily resident in India for seven years.
Minor children whose both parents are Indian citizens.
Persons of full age and capacity who have been registered as an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) for five years and residing in India for one year.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (d)

Explanation:

Modes of acquiring Indian citizenship: The Constitution and the Citizenship Act provide four primary ways — by birth, descent, registration, and naturalization.
Importantly, India does not allow dual citizenship. This means that if an Indian voluntarily takes citizenship of another country, their Indian citizenship automatically stands cancelled.

Citizenship by Registration includes the following categories:

Persons of Indian origin ordinarily residing in India for at least seven years. Correct.
Persons married to an Indian citizen and ordinarily resident in India for seven years. Correct.
Minor children whose both parents are Indian citizens. Correct.
Persons of full age and capacity who have been registered as Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) for five years and have lived in India for at least one year. Correct.

Additionally, the law also includes:

Persons of Indian origin residing outside undivided India.
Persons of full age whose both parents are already registered citizens of India.

QUESTION 5

With reference to Unrecognised Political Parties in India, consider the following statements:

They are entitled to an exclusive allotment of a reserved election symbol.
They are eligible to receive free copies of the electoral rolls and also free authorisation for broadcast/telecast facilities over All India Radio and Doordarshan during Assembly and General elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (d)

Explanation:

While it is not compulsory for a political party to register with the Election Commission of India (ECI), registered parties enjoy certain benefits under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Unrecognised parties may include newly registered outfits or existing parties that fail to secure the required vote share or seats in elections to qualify as either a State party or a National party.

Statement Analysis:

Unrecognised parties are not entitled to an exclusive election symbol. Instead, they must pick from a pool of free symbols notified by the Election Commission. Incorrect.
They also do not enjoy benefits such as free electoral rolls, access to AIR/Doordarshan broadcast facilities, or subsidised land for party offices. These privileges are reserved for recognised parties. Incorrect.

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