Daily Prelims MCQs - Current Affairs - 18th August 2025
- TPP
- Aug 18
- 20 min read
Updated: Aug 19
Welcome to this weekly set of UPSC Prelims Current Affairs MCQs (11th–17th August 2025).This quiz contains 15 high-quality multiple-choice questions with detailed explanations, curated from the most important news and government updates.
These UPSC current affairs questions are designed to help aspirants:
Revise dynamic topics relevant for UPSC Prelims 2026
Link static concepts with current events (the way UPSC asks)
Build conceptual clarity with explanations and sources
This set covers topics like India’s nuclear energy sector, livestock economy, Sudarshan Chakra Mission, Samudrayaan Mission, population trends, digitally literate states, hydrogen-powered trains, NISAR mission, S-400 missile system, AI in finance, Income-tax Bill 2025, Orbiting Carbon Observatories, arms regulation, urban governance, the LPG carrier Sahyadri and more...
Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).
QUESTION 1
With reference to India’s nuclear energy sector, consider the following statements:
As of June 30, 2025, India’s installed nuclear power capacity stood at approximately 8.8 gigawatts (GW).
The Government of India has permitted private sector participation in the field of nuclear energy.
India has set a target to expand its nuclear generation capacity by a factor of ten by the year 2047.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (c)
Explanation:
In his Independence Day speech, Prime Minister Narendra Modi emphasized India’s push toward energy self-sufficiency, especially in the context of reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and harnessing indigenous sources like nuclear energy.
Statement 1 is correct: As of 30th June 2025, India's total installed nuclear power capacity reached around 8.8 GW (gigawatts).
This accounts for just under 2% of the country’s total installed electricity generation capacity.
Nuclear energy remains a non-fossil source, contributing to India’s clean energy transition.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian government has "opened the doors" of the nuclear energy sector to private players, a significant policy shift from the earlier stance where the sector was exclusively state-controlled.
This move is intended to boost investments, innovation, and capacity through private participation while still maintaining regulatory safeguards.
Statement 3 is correct: India has set an ambitious goal to increase its nuclear energy capacity tenfold by 2047, aligning with its vision for long-term energy security and net-zero emissions.
This tenfold increase would take the current capacity of ~8.8 GW to nearly 88 GW by 2047, significantly scaling up the role of nuclear in the overall energy mix.
QUESTION 2
Consider the following statements regarding the role of the livestock and companion animal sector in India:
Statement 1: The livestock and companion animal sector forms a critical pillar of India’s agricultural economy and supports rural livelihoods across the country.
Statement 2: The animal husbandry and dairying sub-sector contributes approximately 30% to the agricultural Gross Value Added (GVA) and around 5.5% to India’s overall Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
Which of the following options correctly reflects the relationship between these two statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct, and Statement 2 provides the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct.
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, recently sought public and expert feedback on its draft "Guidelines/Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for Blood Transfusion & Blood Banks for Animals in India."
This move reflects the growing recognition of the importance of animal health infrastructure, especially as India has a vast and diverse livestock population.
Key Facts:
According to the 20th Livestock Census (2019), India is home to 536.76 million livestock animals.
This includes:
Cattle, buffaloes, goats, sheep, pigs
As well as working and load-bearing animals such as horses, ponies, mules, donkeys, and camels
Additionally, India has an estimated 125 million companion animals (pets), as per the draft guidelines.
Economic Contribution:
The animal husbandry and dairying sector contributes roughly 30% of the agricultural GVA — this means it plays a substantial role within the agriculture sector itself.
It also adds around 5.5% to the national GDP, signifying its impact on the broader economy.
QUESTION 3
What is the Sudarshan Chakra Mission?
(a) A space exploration programme designed to launch India’s first human-crewed mission to Mars.
(b) An archaeological project dedicated to conserving India's ancient temples and preserving cultural heritage.
(c) A renewable energy initiative focused on maximizing solar and wind power integration into the national electricity grid.
(d) A comprehensive defence strategy aimed at safeguarding India’s strategic, civilian, and religious sites against external threats.
Answer (d)
Explanation:
On the occasion of India’s 79th Independence Day, celebrated on a Friday, Prime Minister Narendra Modi delivered a landmark speech lasting 103 minutes, making it the longest Independence Day address by any Indian Prime Minister to date. During his speech from the Red Fort, he honored the memory of India’s freedom fighters and elaborated on the nation’s progress 88 years since Independence.
One of the major announcements made during this address was the launch of the Sudarshan Chakra Mission, a large-scale defence initiative inspired by Lord Shri Krishna’s legendary weapon, the Sudarshan Chakra. The mission is designed to bolster India’s national security framework by offering protection to critical infrastructure, including:
Strategic facilities (such as military bases and nuclear installations),
Civilian areas (public spaces, essential services),
And religious landmarks.
The objective is to deter and counter any hostile actions by adversaries targeting India’s vital assets. According to the Prime Minister, the initiative involves the integration of cutting-edge technological systems into the security framework.
The government’s long-term goal under this mission is to ensure that all key public spaces across the country are shielded under a unified national security grid by the year 2035.
QUESTION 4
With reference to India’s Samudrayaan Mission, consider the following statements:
The mission aims to develop a self-propelled manned submersible capable of carrying humans to a depth of 6,000 metres beneath the ocean surface.
It is the first Indian mission involving human exploration of deep-sea environments.
So far, only two countries have successfully conducted crewed deep-ocean missions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The Samudrayaan Mission is India’s pioneering venture into manned deep-sea exploration, led under the umbrella of the country's broader Deep Ocean Mission, overseen by the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Statement 1 is Correct: The Samudrayaan project aims to design and deploy an indigenously built, self-propelled manned submersible, named Matsya6000, capable of reaching depths of up to 6,000 meters (6 km) beneath the sea surface.
Self-propelled Manned Submersible: A deep-sea vessel that can move independently underwater and carry humans inside a pressure-resistant cabin. It is used for scientific research, exploration, and even resource extraction at extreme depths.
This vehicle is designed to carry three people, along with scientific sensors and tools, for direct exploration of the deep ocean environment, particularly for mineral resource assessment and biodiversity studies.
Statement 2 is Correct: Samudrayaan is indeed India's first manned deep-sea mission. While India has carried out various oceanographic and marine science missions in the past, this is the first involving human presence at extreme ocean depths. It represents a significant leap in India’s marine technology capabilities.
The project timeline aims for a crewed dive by 2027, aligning symbolically with India's space mission milestones.
The comparison to space is intentional — exploring 6,000 metres under the sea is technologically and logistically as challenging as sending humans to space, making this a major national scientific achievement.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: It is not correct that only two countries have conducted successful crewed deep-sea missions. In fact, five countries have achieved this feat so far:
United States
Russia
China
France
Japan
India is expected to become the sixth nation to join this elite group. Therefore, the number stated in the question is inaccurate.
Crewed Deep-Ocean Mission: A scientific expedition where humans are physically sent to great depths in the ocean using specialized submarines (submersibles). These missions are extremely rare due to technical, safety, and financial challenges.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following countries recorded a population decline for the 16th consecutive year in 2024, marking the sharpest drop since 1968?
(a) North Korea
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Brazil
Answer (c)
Explanation:
In the year 2024, Japan's total population saw a significant decline of over 908,000 individuals, bringing the overall population down to approximately 120.65 million (or 12.065 crore). This data comes from official sources and was reported by Deutsche Welle (DW), a German international broadcaster.
This marks two important demographic milestones for Japan:
It was the largest annual population decrease since 1968.
It also marked the 16th consecutive year of population decline in the country.
The primary driver behind this trend is Japan’s persistently low birth rate.
Birth Rate: The number of live births per 1,000 people in a given year. A consistently low birth rate leads to fewer younger people entering the population, which can result in long-term demographic and economic challenges.
According to the DW report, only 686,061 births were recorded in Japan in 2024 — the lowest number since national birth records began in 1899. This dramatic drop in births is a major contributor to the overall population decline.
Population Decline: A decrease in a country’s total population, often caused by a combination of factors like low birth rates, aging population, and net migration loss (more people leaving the country than arriving).
Japan's demographic shift has long-term implications, including:
A rapidly aging population, with a growing proportion of elderly citizens.
A shrinking workforce, which can slow economic growth.
Increased pressure on social security and healthcare systems, which need to support a larger aging population with fewer working-age taxpayers.
In contrast, countries like North Korea, China, and Brazil may face demographic shifts too, but Japan's decline is both more prolonged and more severe, making it a global case study in population aging and decline.
QUESTION 6
Which Indian state is poised to be declared the country’s first digitally literate state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Mizoram
(c) Sikkim
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer (a)
Explanation:
On August 21, the Chief Minister of Kerala, Pinarayi Vijayan, is set to officially declare Kerala as India’s first digitally literate state. This milestone is the result of a comprehensive digital empowerment initiative launched by the state government.
The programme, named ‘Digi Keralam – Complete Digital Literacy Programme’, was driven by the Local Self-Government Department (LSGD). The aim was to bridge the digital divide by ensuring access to digital knowledge and skills across all sections of society — irrespective of age, socio-economic background, or education level.
Digitally Literate: A person is considered digitally literate when they possess the skills to safely and effectively use digital tools and services — such as smartphones, computers, and the internet — to access information, communicate, and avail public services online.
To achieve this goal, the programme first conducted a statewide survey covering 83 lakh households (8.3 million families) to identify individuals who lacked basic digital skills.
This large-scale initiative was made possible through the efforts of 2.57 lakh trained volunteers. These volunteers were drawn from various government-backed schemes and organisations, including:
MGNREGA Supervisors – officials under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, which ensures rural employment.
National Service Scheme (NSS) – a public service program involving youth in community work.
National Cadet Corps (NCC) – a youth wing of the armed forces that promotes discipline and leadership.
Nehru Yuva Kendra (NYK) – youth clubs focused on community development.
Together, they surveyed 1.5 crore people (15 million individuals) and successfully identified around 21 lakh digitally illiterate persons. This group included individuals well into their 90s, highlighting the inclusive nature of the initiative.
After identification, structured training modules were conducted to equip these individuals with basic digital competencies, enabling them to use smartphones, access government e-services, and engage in the digital ecosystem.
QUESTION 7
Regarding India’s Hydrogen-Powered Train Engine, consider the following statements:
The hydrogen engine developed indigenously in India has a power output of 1200 horsepower, making it more powerful than other hydrogen-powered engines worldwide.
The locomotive has been designed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
India has successfully developed its first hydrogen-powered trainset using indigenous technology, and this train has recently passed rigorous load tests, paving the way for its final commissioning. The Ministry of Railways plans to deploy 35 such hydrogen trains under the initiative titled “Hydrogen for Heritage,” which aims to operate them on various heritage and hill routes across the country.
This advancement supports India’s commitment towards green transportation by promoting zero-carbon emission technologies and utilizing clean energy sources like hydrogen fuel. Field trials for the first hydrogen trainset are scheduled between Jind and Sonipat stations in Haryana, covering a distance of approximately 89 kilometers. These stations fall under the administrative jurisdiction of Northern Railway’s Delhi Division.
Significantly, the hydrogen engine has been developed by the Research, Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO), and it is expected to be the most powerful hydrogen engine globally. While most hydrogen trains internationally have engine capacities between 500 to 600 horsepower (HP), India’s indigenous technology has achieved an impressive output of 1,200 horsepower, marking a notable leap in this field. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
However, Statement 2 is incorrect because the locomotive was not designed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL); rather, it was developed by RDSO.
Hydrogen-Powered Train/Engine: A train propelled by hydrogen fuel cells which convert hydrogen gas into electricity to power electric motors, producing zero emissions except water vapor, making it an eco-friendly alternative to diesel or electric trains running on fossil fuels.
Horsepower (HP): A unit of power measurement used to quantify the output power of engines; 1 HP equals 746 watts. In locomotives, higher horsepower means the engine can pull heavier loads or maintain higher speeds.
QUESTION 8
With reference to the NISAR mission, consider the following statements:
The satellite will scan the entire Earth every 30 days, providing a series of highly detailed images of the surface.
NASA’s L-band and ISRO’s S-band radars can penetrate clouds, smoke, rain, or fog, allowing an unobstructed view of the Earth’s surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b)
Explanation
The NISAR mission is a joint collaboration between NASA and ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) focusing on Earth observation using radar imaging.
The satellite will be launched aboard ISRO’s GSLV-F16 and placed in a sun-synchronous orbit at about 734 km altitude.
Sun-synchronous orbit means the satellite passes over the same part of the Earth at roughly the same local time each day.
NISAR will scan the entire Earth approximately every 12 days, not 30 days.
NISAR is equipped with two synthetic aperture radars operating at different frequencies:
NASA’s L-band radar
ISRO’s S-band radarThese radar bands can penetrate atmospheric conditions such as clouds, smoke, rain, and fog, enabling the satellite to capture clear images regardless of weather or daylight.
The mission will provide highly detailed and frequent data to help study climate change, natural hazards, land use, and ecosystem dynamics.
Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) is a type of radar technology used on satellites and aircraft to create detailed images of the Earth’s surface.
How it works: Instead of using a large physical antenna, SAR uses the motion of the satellite to simulate (or "synthesize") a large antenna, which produces high-resolution images.
Advantages of SAR:
It can operate day and night, unlike optical cameras that need sunlight.
It can penetrate clouds, smoke, rain, and fog, making it useful in all weather conditions.
It measures surface characteristics, including elevation, roughness, and moisture.
Bands used: Different radar frequencies (bands) such as L-band and S-band have different penetration abilities and resolutions.
Applications of the NISAR Mission
Climate change monitoring: Tracks changes in glaciers, sea ice, and forests to understand the effects of global warming.
Natural disaster management: Monitors earthquakes, floods, landslides, and volcanoes by detecting ground deformation and surface changes.
Agriculture and land use: Helps assess crop health, soil moisture, deforestation, and urban expansion.
Ecosystem and biodiversity studies: Provides data on habitat changes and forest biomass to support conservation efforts.
Infrastructure monitoring: Observes land subsidence and infrastructure stability, which is useful for urban planning.
QUESTION 9
With reference to the S-400 Triumf missile system, consider the following statements:
It is a mobile, surface-to-air missile (SAM) system developed by the United States.
It can detect aerial threats, compute their trajectory, and launch suitable missiles to neutralize them.
It is equipped with a multifunction radar system.
It has autonomous detection and targeting capabilities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Recently, Air Chief Marshal A. P. Singh revealed that during Operation Sindoor, the Indian Air Force (IAF) successfully brought down “at least” five Pakistani fighter jets and “one large aircraft.” He highlighted the role of the S-400 missile system, calling it a "game-changer" in India's air defence arsenal.
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The S-400 Triumf, also known by its NATO name SA-21 Growler, is not designed by the United States, but by Russia (Almaz-Antey).
It entered operational service in 2007 and is considered among the most advanced long-range SAM systems in the world.
It is often compared with the US-developed THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defense) system.
Statement 2 is Correct: The core function of the S-400 is to:
Detect aerial threats (aircraft, drones, cruise missiles, etc.)
Track their movement
Calculate their path
Launch appropriate missiles to intercept them before they reach the target.
Statement 3 is Correct: The S-400 is equipped with multifunction radar systems that:
Detect and track multiple targets across long ranges
Guide missiles to targets in complex electromagnetic environments
Statement 4 is Correct: The S-400 features autonomous detection and targeting systems, meaning:
It can operate with minimal manual input
The system is capable of independent threat evaluation and interception decisions
The S-400 provides layered air defense, with the ability to fire multiple types of missiles at varying ranges.
It was described by the Indian Air Force as a “game-changer” during Operation Sindoor, reportedly contributing to the downing of multiple enemy aircraft.
India purchased the S-400 from Russia under a multi-billion-dollar deal despite geopolitical pressures.
S-400 vs THAAD vs Iron Dome | |||
Feature | S-400 Triumf | THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defense) | Iron Dome |
Country of Origin | Russia | United States | Israel |
Type | Long-range Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM) | Anti-ballistic missile system | Short-range Rocket and Artillery interceptor |
Primary Role | Multi-target air defense: aircraft, UAVs, cruise & ballistic missiles | Intercepts short to intermediate-range ballistic missiles | Intercepts short-range rockets and artillery shells |
Range (approx.) | Up to 400 km (varies with missile type) | 200 km (interception range) | 4–70 km (effective range) |
Altitude Coverage | Up to 30–40 km | 40–150 km (high-altitude intercepts) | Low-altitude intercepts |
Radar Capability | Multifunction radar, long-range tracking | AN/TPY-2 X-band radar | EL/M-2084 Multi-Mission Radar |
Mobility | Highly mobile, rapid deployment (<5 min) | Mobile but slower to deploy | Mobile, designed for fast response |
Missile Types | Can fire 4 types of missiles (layered defence) | Single interceptor missile | Tamir interceptors |
Used By | Russia, India, China, Turkey, Saudi Arabia (orders placed) | USA, UAE, South Korea, Japan, Saudi Arabia | Israel (also exported to some countries) |
Cost (per unit estimate) | $500 million (per battery, approx.) | $800 million–$1 billion per unit | $50 million per battery |
QUESTION 10
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)-constituted committee to promote responsible and ethical use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in the financial sector recommended which of the following measures?
Setting up an AI innovation sandbox to test and validate AI applications.
Building indigenous AI models specifically designed for the financial sector in India.
Formulating adaptive policies along with an AI liability framework to manage risks and accountability.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (d)
Explanation:
In December 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) formed a committee to draft a Framework for Responsible and Ethical Enablement of Artificial Intelligence (FREE-AI) in the financial sector.
The committee submitted 26 recommendations categorized under six pillars:
Infrastructure, Policy, Capacity, Governance, Protection, and Assurance.
Statement 1 is Correct: The committee suggested establishing a sandbox specifically for AI innovations.
Innovation Sandbox: A controlled environment where fintech firms and banks can test AI-based products and services with real data under regulatory oversight.
Statement 2 is Correct: The committee emphasized the need to develop domestic AI models tailored to the needs of India’s financial ecosystem, ensuring data security, contextual relevance, and regulatory compliance.
Statement 3 is Correct: The recommendations include designing adaptive policy frameworks that can evolve with AI development and the creation of an AI liability framework, which assigns accountability in case of harm, errors, or bias in AI-based decision-making.
This RBI initiative reflects growing concern over the ethical use of AI in sectors like banking, insurance, and fintech, where algorithmic decisions can have significant impact on individuals and institutions.
QUESTION 11
With reference to the regulation of arms and ammunition in India under the Arms Act, 1959 and the Arms Rules, 2016, consider the following statements:
Licences for arms and ammunition in the permissible category are issued and regulated by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Licences for arms and ammunition in the prohibited and restricted categories fall under the direct control of the Union Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Recently, the Chief Minister of Assam, Himanta Biswa Sarma, launched an online arms licence portal for indigenous citizens in vulnerable and remote areas, highlighting the relevance of arms regulation across different Indian states.
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Under the Arms Rules, 2016 (framed under the Arms Act, 1959), licences for arms and ammunition in the permissible category are not issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Instead, they are regulated by the respective State governments.
State governments have the authority to grant such licences, subject to compliance with the central rules.
Requirements can vary between states, as long as they do not conflict with the central framework.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Licences for prohibited and restricted arms and ammunition are not governed by the Ministry of Defence, as stated in the question.
These are actually governed directly by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
The Schedule I of the Arms Rules classifies arms into prohibited, restricted, and permitted categories, with stringent control over the first two categories due to security concerns.
Term | Description |
Arms Act, 1959 | Central law that regulates possession, acquisition, manufacture, sale, and licensing of firearms in India |
Arms Rules, 2016 | Rules framed under the Act to operationalize its provisions; includes classification of arms |
Prohibited/Restricted Arms | Typically include automatic firearms and certain high-capacity weapons; tightly controlled |
Permissible Arms | Typically include licensed civilian weapons such as handguns, double-barrel shotguns, etc. |
Licensing Authority | For permissible arms – State government; for restricted/prohibited arms – Union MHA |
QUESTION 12
With reference to urban governance in India, consider the following statements:
The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 recognized only two categories of urban local bodies (ULBs).
A metropolitan area, as per constitutional definition, refers to an urban region with a population exceeding 10 lakh (1 million).
Members of urban municipalities are to be directly elected by the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court recently asked the Uttar Pradesh government to consider transforming the NOIDA Authority into a metropolitan corporation to enhance citizen-centric governance.
NOIDA is currently the only major city in India that does not have an elected urban local body, despite having crossed the 10-lakh population mark as far back as 2010.
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 established a three-tier structure of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), not two. These include:
Municipal Corporations for large urban areas
Municipal Councils for smaller urban areas
Nagar Panchayats for areas in transition from rural to urban
Urban Local Bodies: These are the institutions of self-governance in urban areas, similar to Panchayati Raj Institutions in rural areas.
Statement 2 is Correct: The 74th Amendment defines a metropolitan area as a region with a population of more than 10 lakh, comprising one or more districts and consisting of two or more municipalities or panchayats or other contiguous areas.
For instance, Noida crossed this population threshold back in 2010.
Statement 3 is Correct: The Constitution mandates that members of municipalities are to be directly elected by the people of that area. These municipalities form the third tier of governance in urban areas, after the Union and State governments.
Their functions include managing urban infrastructure, public health, sanitation, street lighting, waste disposal, etc.
The 74th Constitutional Amendment laid the foundation for decentralized urban governance in India.
Urban areas are governed through a three-tiered structure, and direct elections ensure democratic accountability at the local level.
QUESTION 13
With reference to the recently passed Income-tax (No.2) Bill, 2025, which aims to replace the Income Tax Act of 1961, consider the following provisions:
Under the new legislation, taxpayers are eligible for a refund only if they have filed their income tax return before the specified due date.
The new Bill provides that no Tax Collected at Source (TCS) will be applicable on foreign remittances for educational purposes if such remittances are financed through any financial institution under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: In the initial draft of the Income-tax Bill, 2025, Clause 263(1)(a)(ix) included a condition that a taxpayer could only claim a refund if they filed their return on or before the due date.
However, after review by the Parliamentary Select Committee, this restrictive clause was removed in the final version of the Bill.
This provision does not exist in the final Bill.
Statement 2 is Correct: The final version of the new Income-tax Bill explicitly clarifies that there will be zero TCS (Tax Collected at Source) on outward remittances made under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) for educational purposes, if financed by any financial institution (such as banks or NBFCs).
This was done to reduce financial burdens on students and families sending money abroad for education.
Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS): A facility by the RBI that allows Indian residents to remit up to a certain amount (currently $250,000 per financial year) abroad for permitted purposes like education, travel, gifts, etc.
The Income-tax (No.2) Bill, 2025 will replace the Income Tax Act, 1961 and is expected to come into force from April 1, 2026.
The revised Bill has removed restrictive refund conditions and simplified foreign education remittance taxation.
QUESTION 14
With reference to the Orbiting Carbon Observatories (OCOs), consider the following statements:
The OCOs are specialized Earth-observing satellites developed with the primary objective of tracking atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO₂) from space to enhance scientific understanding of climate change dynamics.
The OCO satellite program was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in partnership with other global space agencies, aiming to assess carbon dioxide-related pollution in Indian urban regions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: The Orbiting Carbon Observatories (OCOs) are a set of Earth remote sensing satellites launched by NASA. Their main purpose is to measure levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO₂)—a key greenhouse gas—to help scientists better understand global climate change.
Remote sensing: It refers to collecting data about Earth’s surface or atmosphere without direct contact, typically via satellite sensors.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: The OCO missions were not launched by ISRO. These satellites are part of a NASA-led initiative, and there is no official collaboration with ISRO for monitoring CO₂ pollution in Indian cities under this program.
Moreover, the suggestion that the mission focused specifically on Indian urban pollution is factually inaccurate.
In fact, under the Trump administration, there were reports of potential funding cuts and premature termination of these missions, which raised concerns among environmental scientists.
Key Concept to Remember:
The OCO satellites (OCO-2 and OCO-3) provide critical, high-precision data about CO₂ concentrations, assisting in climate modeling and tracking the carbon cycle on Earth.
Their global scope includes oceans, forests, and cities—not just limited to one country or region.
QUESTION 15
The recently inducted LPG carrier ‘Sahyadri’, added to India’s maritime fleet, was constructed in which of the following countries?
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) South Korea
(d) Israel
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Just ahead of India’s 79th Independence Day, the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways officially inducted a major asset into the national maritime fleet — the VLGC Sahyadri, where VLGC stands for Very Large Gas Carrier.
Key Facts:
The Sahyadri will play a crucial role in transporting Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) between the Persian Gulf and India, thereby strengthening India's energy supply chain.
The vessel is named after the Sahyadri mountain range, which runs along India's western coast.
It has been acquired by the Shipping Corporation of India Ltd. (SCI), a public sector enterprise. Notably, this is the first VLGC acquisition by an Indian PSU in eight years.
Construction Details:
The Sahyadri was built in South Korea, a global leader in advanced shipbuilding.
Specifications of the vessel:
Length: 225 metres
Width (Beam): 36 metres
LPG carrying capacity: Up to 82,000 cubic metres
Designed to comply with international safety and environmental norms
With its induction, the Shipping Corporation of India’s:
Deadweight tonnage (DWT) has increased to 5.2 million tons
DWT, total weight a ship can safely carry, including cargo, fuel, crew, etc.
Owned fleet size has grown to 57 vessels, including tankers, bulk carriers, container ships, offshore vessels, and gas carriers
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