Daily Prelims MCQs - Polity - 13th August 2025
- TPP
- Aug 13
- 7 min read
Welcome to today’s handpicked set of Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) from the Polity — crafted specially for the UPSC Prelims! These questions aren’t just a quiz — they’re a smart way to see how current affairs connect with core concepts, just like UPSC asks in the exam.
Each question is based on recent news and backed by clear explanations to help you build strong links between dynamic events and static knowledge.
Today’s topics include: Governor of an Indian State, electoral reforms, SIR, Belagavi, Karwar, and Nipani, Article 32, Delimitation Commissions and more...
Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).
QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about the Governor of an Indian State is incorrect?
(a) There is no procedure of impeachment to remove the Governor.
(b) The Governor holds office for a fixed tenure of five years.
(c) The qualifications and conditions of the Governor’s office are specified in the Constitution.
(d) The Governor is appointed by the President through a warrant under his hand and seal.
Answer (b)
Explanation:
According to Article 153, each State shall have a Governor. However, an amendment in 1956 allows the same individual to serve as Governor for more than one State simultaneously.
Article 155 states that the Governor is appointed by the President via a warrant bearing his hand and seal.
Per Article 156, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, which means the Governor’s term is not absolute. Although the normal tenure is five years, the Governor can be removed earlier if the President revokes pleasure.
The President acts on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers, implying the Governor’s appointment and removal are effectively controlled by the central government.
The qualifications for the office of Governor, laid down in Article 157, include being a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age.
Article 158 sets the conditions of the office: the Governor must not be a member of Parliament or a State Legislature and should not hold any other office of profit.
The Governor possesses important constitutional powers such as giving assent to bills passed by the state legislature, deciding the timeline for proving majority after elections, and exercising discretion in hung assemblies.
Notably, the Constitution does not prescribe any impeachment process for the Governor, nor are there formal mechanisms for managing differences of opinion between the Governor and the State Government in the public domain.
QUESTION 2
Identify the committees that have been associated with recommending electoral reforms in India:
Tarkunde Committee
Dinesh Goswami Committee
Indrajit Gupta Committee
Chelliah Committee
Choose the correct combination using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Electoral reforms are aimed at safeguarding the integrity and transparency of India’s electoral processes by minimizing manipulation, the influence of money and muscle power, and ensuring alignment with democratic values such as fairness and justice.
Several expert committees have played a pivotal role in recommending reforms to tackle these challenges. Among the most influential are the Tarkunde Committee (1975), the Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990), and the Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998).
These committees suggested key changes like mandatory disclosure of candidates’ financial, educational, and criminal backgrounds, reduction of voting age from 21 to 18, introduction of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), and improved election security.
While many of these reforms have been implemented, senior officials like former Chief Election Commissioners continue to highlight persistent challenges that affect the fairness of elections.
QUESTION 3
The term “special intensive revision” (SIR) is primarily related to the functioning of the:
(a) Election Commission
(b) President of India
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The special intensive revision (SIR) of electoral rolls has recently become a significant point of contention between the government and opposition parties, especially ahead of the elections in Bihar.
The Election Commission undertakes this SIR process to ensure the accuracy and completeness of the voter lists.
During SIR, the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) for each Assembly Constituency is tasked with the responsibility of making sure that all eligible voters are included in the electoral roll, and no ineligible persons are registered.
This process is critical to maintaining the integrity of elections and ensuring fair representation.
QUESTION 4
The territorial dispute involving regions such as Belagavi, Karwar, and Nipani pertains to the inter-state boundary issue between:
(a) Kerala and Karnataka
(b) Karnataka and Goa
(c) Maharashtra and Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra and Goa
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The long-standing border conflict between Maharashtra and Karnataka centers on certain areas in northern Karnataka, including Belagavi (formerly Belgaum), Karwar, and Nipani.
The root of the dispute lies in the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which redrew state boundaries primarily along linguistic lines. As a result, Belagavi was integrated into the then Mysore state (now Karnataka).
Maharashtra asserts that several Marathi-speaking areas—particularly in and around Belagavi—should be incorporated into its territory.
In response to the issue, the Government of India constituted the Mahajan Commission in October 1966, headed by Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan, a former Chief Justice of India, to examine border issues involving Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Kerala.
Recent developments show both Maharashtra and Karnataka assemblies passing resolutions affirming their respective positions, keeping the dispute alive in the political and legal domain.
QUESTION 5
The constitutional provision that guarantees an individual the right to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights is contained in:
(a) Article 31B
(b) Article 31C
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 33
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Article 32 of the Constitution of India explicitly provides the right to seek legal remedy from the Supreme Court through appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution.
It empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders, or writs—including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari—as applicable, to uphold these rights.
This remedy itself is considered a Fundamental Right, which Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described as the "heart and soul of the Constitution."
QUESTION 6
Match the following personalities with their respective first-time constitutional roles in independent India:
First Attorney General of India — K.T. Shah
First Chief Election Commissioner — Sukumar Sen
First Chief Justice of India — H.J. Kania
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three pairs
(d) None
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first Attorney General of India was M.C. Setalvad (Motilal Chimanlal Setalvad), appointed in 1950.
K.T. Shah, though a prominent economist and legal scholar, was a member of the Constituent Assembly, not the Attorney General.
Statement 2 is correct: Sukumar Sen was appointed as the first Chief Election Commissioner of India and successfully conducted the country's first general elections in 1951–52.
Statement 3 is correct: Justice Harilal Jekisundas Kania was the first Chief Justice of independent India, assuming office in 1950 when the Supreme Court of India came into existence.
QUESTION 7
Examine the following statements:
The President of India forms a part of the Parliament, despite not being a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
The Constitution stipulates that the Lok Sabha can have a maximum strength of 552 members.
The Attorney-General of India is permitted to participate in debates and speak in the Lok Sabha, but is not allowed to do so in the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer (c)
Explanation:
According to Article 88 of the Constitution of India:
The Attorney-General of India is granted the right to address and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament—the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha—as well as in any joint sitting or Parliamentary committee of which he is a member.
However, this article also clearly states that the Attorney-General does not possess voting rights in either House.
Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect, as it wrongly claims the Attorney-General cannot speak in the Rajya Sabha, which contradicts Article 88.
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 79, the Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 81, the maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552 members, which includes up to 530 representatives from states, 20 from Union territories, and 2 nominated members from the Anglo-Indian community (though this provision is now discontinued after the 104th Constitutional Amendment).
QUESTION 8
With reference to the Delimitation Commissions in India, consider the following statements:
The Delimitation Commission is a powerful statutory authority whose decisions carry the weight of law and are not subject to judicial review in any court.
The implementation of the Commission’s decisions takes effect from a date appointed by the President of India.
India has seen the formation of Delimitation Commissions on four distinct occasions since independence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (d)
Explanation:
As per the official information available on the website of the Election Commission of India (eci.gov.in):
The task of delimiting constituencies in India is entrusted to a high-powered statutory body known as the Delimitation Commission or Boundary Commission.
This body’s orders are final and binding, having the force of law, and cannot be challenged in any court of law.
The orders become effective from a date that is notified by the President of India.
Since independence, India has witnessed the constitution of such Commissions four times:
In 1952 (under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952),
In 1963 (under the 1962 Act),
In 1973 (under the 1972 Act),
And most recently in 2002 (under the 2002 Act).
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