Daily Prelims MCQs - Polity - 7 August 2025
- TPP
- Aug 7
- 10 min read
Welcome to today’s handpicked set of Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) from the Polity — crafted specially for the UPSC Prelims! These questions aren’t just a quiz — they’re a smart way to see how current affairs connect with core concepts, just like UPSC asks in the exam.
Each question is based on recent news and backed by clear explanations to help you build strong links between dynamic events and static knowledge.
Today’s topics include: Article 356, panchayat elections, Ninth Schedule, Preamble, Lok Sabha, quorum, Union Bill is a Money Bill, term Prorogation and more...
Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).
QUESTION 1
With reference to Article 356 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
According to the provisions of Article 356, the President’s Rule in a state can be imposed for one month at a time.
It empowers the President to withdraw only legislative powers and not the executive powers and financial powers of any state.
Article 356 was inspired by the Government of India Act of 1909.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with the imposition of President’s Rule, which refers to a situation where the elected government of a state is suspended and the central government takes direct control.
The provision can be invoked when the President is satisfied that the governance of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
President’s Rule under Article 356 can be initially imposed for six months, not one month. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
This period can be extended every six months with the approval of both Houses of Parliament, but the total duration cannot exceed three years, except under special circumstances.
During President’s Rule, the President can assume both executive and legislative powers of the state. Executive power means the authority to run the administration, while legislative power refers to the power to make laws.
Additionally, the President can authorize withdrawals from the state’s Consolidated Fund, effectively exercising financial powers too. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The inspiration for Article 356 came from Section 93 of the Government of India Act, 1935, not the Act of 1909. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Section 93 of the 1935 Act allowed the Governor to assume control of provincial administration if governance could not be carried out as per the law, which closely resembles the power given to the President under Article 356.
QUESTION 2
Consider the following statements:
The Chairman or Speaker, or person acting as such, shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one-fifth of the total number of members of the House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
In both Houses of Parliament, the presiding officer has no right to vote in the beginning of the voting process. This includes the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, or any person temporarily occupying that role.
However, if the votes are evenly split — meaning there is a tie or equality of votes — the presiding officer is allowed to use a casting vote.
A casting vote is a special power given to the presiding officer to break a tie, and it is exercised only in such cases.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The quorum refers to the minimum number of members required to conduct the proceedings of a House.
According to Article 100(3) of the Constitution of India, the quorum for either House is one-tenth of its total membership, unless a law prescribes otherwise.There is no provision in the Constitution or in Parliamentary law for the quorum to be one-fifth of the members. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
If the quorum is not met during a session, it becomes the duty of the presiding officer to adjourn the House or suspend the sitting until a quorum is present.
The Constitution also permits the Houses to function despite vacancies, and it ensures that proceedings remain valid even if someone who was not entitled to sit or vote did so unknowingly.
QUESTION 3
With reference to the panchayat elections, consider the following statements:
All the seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by persons chosen by indirect election.
The ratio between the population of the territorial area of a Panchayat at any level and the number of seats in such Panchayat to be filled by election varies throughout the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The Constitution of India mandates the establishment of Panchayats at three levels — village, intermediate, and district — in every state.
These Panchayats serve as units of local self-government in rural areas under Part IX of the Constitution.
In states with a population of more than 20 lakhs, all three levels of Panchayats must be constituted. However, for states with a population of 20 lakhs or less, the intermediate level Panchayat is not mandatory.
Elections to Panchayats are conducted based on territorial constituencies carved out within the Panchayat area.
According to Article 243C (2), every seat in a Panchayat is filled by direct election.
A direct election means voters directly elect their representative, unlike indirect elections, where elected representatives choose other members. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Constitution also provides that, as far as practicable, the ratio between the population of a Panchayat’s area and the number of seats filled by election should be uniform throughout the state.
This ensures equal representation based on population size and avoids over- or under-representation in certain areas. Hence, statement 2 is also incorrect.
QUESTION 4
With reference to the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
The Schedule was added to the Constitution through the Twenty-Seventh Constitutional Amendment.
It contains a list of central and state laws that are protected from being challenged in court on the grounds of violating fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution contains a list of central and state laws that are granted protection from judicial review, particularly from being struck down for violating fundamental rights.
This Schedule was introduced in 1951 through the First Constitutional Amendment, not the Twenty-Seventh. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The First Amendment also added Article 31B to the Constitution. This Article provides that laws included in the Ninth Schedule cannot be declared void on the ground that they contravene the rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights).
The purpose of adding Article 31B and the Ninth Schedule was to protect laws related to land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system, which were being challenged in courts.
Article 31A protects classes of laws, such as those relating to agrarian reforms, while Article 31B protects specific laws listed in the Ninth Schedule.
The First Amendment included 13 laws in the Schedule. Subsequent amendments added more, and today 284 laws are listed under it.
In the landmark case I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court clarified that laws placed under the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) can be reviewed if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
However, these laws still cannot be challenged on the basis of violation of fundamental rights alone. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION 5
With reference to the preamble, consider the following statements:
The ideals behind the preamble were first laid down in the Objectives Resolution.
The preamble is “non-justiciable”.
The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution replaced the words “sovereign democratic republic” with “sovereign socialist secular democratic republic”.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Preamble is a brief introductory statement at the beginning of the Constitution. It outlines the core values, philosophy, and vision that guide the document.
The ideas mentioned in the Preamble were first proposed in the Objectives Resolution, which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1947, under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru.This resolution acted as a blueprint for the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Preamble is considered to be non-justiciable, meaning its provisions cannot be enforced by courts.
In other words, a citizen cannot directly approach the judiciary for violation of the Preamble alone.However, courts often refer to the Preamble to interpret and reinforce the spirit of constitutional provisions during judgments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The 42nd Amendment Act, passed during the Emergency period in 1976, brought changes to the original Preamble.
It added the terms “socialist” and “secular” after the word “sovereign”.It also changed the phrase “unity of the nation” to “unity and integrity of the nation” to reflect a stronger sense of national integration. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
QUESTION 6
With reference to the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
The quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is one-sixth of the total number of Members of the House.
When the Offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant, the duties of the Office of the Speaker are performed by a Members of a Panel of the Chairpersons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The quorum refers to the minimum number of members required to conduct the business of the Lok Sabha. This requirement ensures that important decisions are not made in the presence of too few members.
According to Article 100(3) of the Constitution of India, the quorum for a sitting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of that House.Therefore, if the Lok Sabha has a strength of 545 members, the quorum would be at least 55 members. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, and the Deputy Speaker acts in the absence of the Speaker.
However, if both these offices fall vacant, then the President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha to perform the duties of the Speaker.This appointed person is known as the Speaker pro tem.
A Speaker pro tem is usually appointed to conduct the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha until a regular Speaker is elected. Hence, the duties in the absence of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker are not performed by a member of the Panel of Chairpersons. Therefore, statement 2 is also incorrect.
QUESTION 7
If a question arises as to whether a particular Union Bill is a Money Bill or not, who has the constitutional authority to make the final decision?
(a) President of India
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Standing Committee on Finance
Answer (b)
Explanation:
A Money Bill is a type of bill that contains provisions exclusively related to financial matters, such as taxation, borrowing of money by the government, or expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India. This definition is provided under Article 110 of the Constitution.
Article 110(3) specifically mentions that if any question arises as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final.
This provision makes the Speaker’s decision non-reviewable and conclusive.
The Speaker also certifies the Bill as a Money Bill by signing an endorsement on the Bill.
This certification is done before the Bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha or sent for Presidential assent.
Neither the Rajya Sabha, nor the President, nor any committee, including the Standing Committee on Finance, has the authority to challenge or override the Speaker’s certification.
Therefore, the sole and final authority in this matter is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 8
With reference to the functioning of Parliament, what does the term Prorogation refer to?
(a) It refers to the termination of a parliamentary session through an order issued by the President under Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.
(b) It refers to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, either by Presidential order under Article 85(2)(b) or on completion of its five-year term.
(c) It refers to the temporary suspension of a sitting of the House to be resumed at a later specified time.
(d) None of the above
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The term prorogation is associated with the conclusion of a session of Parliament.
A session consists of a series of meetings of the House held from the day it is summoned until it is prorogued or dissolved.
The President of India has the power to prorogue either House of Parliament, which is done on the advice of the Union Cabinet. This power is provided under Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.
Prorogation ends the current session of the House but does not dissolve the House itself.
All pending notices (except those related to bills) lapse when the session is prorogued.
In contrast, dissolution refers to the end of the life of the Lok Sabha, and it results in the complete termination of its existence.
This can happen either through a Presidential order under Article 85(2)(b) or automatically at the end of its five-year term. Hence, option (b) refers to dissolution, not prorogation.
Adjournment, on the other hand, is a short-term suspension of a sitting. It is ordered by the Presiding Officer (Speaker or Chairman) and does not end the session. Hence, option (c) describes adjournment, not prorogation.
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