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Daily Prelims MCQs - Current Affairs - 29th September 2025

  • Writer: TPP
    TPP
  • Sep 29
  • 10 min read
Daily Prelims MCQs - Current Affairs - 29th September 2025

Welcome to your Daily UPSC Prelims Current Affairs MCQs – 29th September 2025. This is part of our subject-wise daily series where Monday is dedicated to Current Affairs.

Today’s set of 10 curated MCQs blends static–dynamic linkages to help you:

  • Decode the National Security Act (NSA) and its preventive, not punitive, nature.

  • Analyse India–EU trade ties, FDI flows, and trade share traps.

  • Recall the IAF’s farewell to the MiG-21 “Bison” variant.

  • Master facts on Agni-P missile and Uranium enrichment levels.

  • Revisit Typhoon-prone regions, the Sixth Schedule, and welfare schemes like PM-KISAN.

Stay consistent with these daily quizzes to sharpen Prelims 2026 recall, while mastering tricky eliminations across Polity, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment, and International Relations—the very areas UPSC tests with nuanced current affairs traps.

Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).

QUESTION 1

With reference to the National Security Act (NSA), consider the following statements:

  1. The NSA, 1980, empowers the Centre and states to detain individuals to prevent them from acting in a manner “prejudicial to the defence of India, relations with foreign powers.

  2. The power to exercise the powers under the Act is with District Magistrates only.

  3. NSA detention is punitive.

  4. A detention order under the NSA cannot be executed like a warrant of arrest.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer (a)

Explanation:

  • Climate activist Sonam Wangchuk, at the forefront of the movement seeking statehood and protections under the Sixth Schedule for Ladakh, was detained under the stringent National Security Act (NSA) by the police in Leh.

  • Preventive detention has a long history in India, dating back to colonial times when it was used to control dissent during wars. After Independence, Parliament passed the Preventive Detention Act, 1950, followed by the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA), 1971, which became notorious for misuse during the Emergency. MISA was repealed in 1978, and two years later, the National Security Act was enacted.

  • The stated purpose of the NSA was to give the government wide ranging powers to deal with threats to security, law and order, and essential supplies, while building in some procedural safeguards.

  • A detention order under the NSA can be executed like a warrant of arrest. Once detained, a person can be held in specified places, moved across states, and subjected to conditions set by the government. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

  • The NSA, 1980, empowers the Centre and states to detain individuals to prevent them from acting in a manner “prejudicial to the defence of India, relations with foreign powers, the security of India, or the maintenance of public order or essential supplies”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • District Magistrates and Police Commissioners can also exercise these powers when authorised. Unlike an arrest under criminal law, NSA detention is preventive, not punitive—it is designed to prevent an individual from committing an act deemed harmful. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

 

QUESTION 2

With reference to the India-EU trade ties, consider the following statements:

  1. 1. India is the EU’s largest trading partner in the Global South.

  2. 2. EU foreign direct investment in India in 2023 almost doubled in five years.

  3. 3. India accounts for around 30 per cent of the EU’s trade in goods and services.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (b)

Explanation:

  • The India-European Union (EU) leaders’ summit, which will build on the European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen’s visit to India earlier this year, is set to take place next February. In the six months leading up to it, the two sides will be meeting roughly once a week to discuss cooperation in a number of areas.

  • Earlier this month, the EU issued a document which outlines the strategic agenda for India-EU ties ahead of the summit.

  • The EU is India’s largest trading partner; India is the EU’s largest trading partner in the Global South. In 2024, bilateral trade in goods reached EUR 120 billion, an increase of nearly 90% over the last decade. Trade in services adds another EUR 60 billion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • EU foreign direct investment in India reached EUR 140 billion in 2023 — almost doubling in five years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • India accounts for less than 2.5% of the EU’s trade in goods and services, and Indian investment in the EU totals only EUR 10 billion. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

  • The EU’s Global Gateway mobilises EUR 300 billion globally to support energy, digital and transport infrastructure, while India boasts initiatives such as MAHASAGAR (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth). In 2021, the two partners concluded the EU-India Connectivity Partnership.

  • The EU brings world-class research and digital infrastructure, a strong industry, robust regulation, and expertise in green and digital technologies. India, on the other hand, offers a skilled workforce, vast datasets, a growing digital economy and electronics sector, a vibrant startup ecosystem, and expertise in frugal innovation.

  • The EU-India security and defence cooperation has recently gained momentum through the Strategic Dialogue on Foreign and Security Policy launched in June 2025.


QUESTION 3

The term ‘Bison’, often seen in news, refers to which of the following?

(a) a military exercise of India with Russia

(b) the upgraded variant of India’s MiG-21 fighter aircraft

(c) a ballistic missile developed by DRDO

(d) an indigenous Armoured Personnel Carrier

Answer (b)

Explanation:

  • The Indian Air Force (IAF) bid farewell to its iconic MiG-21 fighter jets. The final two MiG-21 squadrons, the No 23 (Panthers) and the No 3 (Cobras), which together operate some 36 jets, retired in Chandigarh during a decommissioning ceremony.

  • When they entered service in 1963 as IAF’s premier interceptors — fighters used for defensive air-to-air combat, to ‘intercept’ enemy aircraft — MiG-21s were arguably the best fighters on the planet.

  • In total, India has procured more than 700 MiG-21s of different variants, with the most recent ‘Bison’ (BIS) variant boasting modern avionics and radar, and advanced missiles. The IAF has upgraded more than 100 MiG-21s to BIS specs since 2006.

  • The BIS upgrades, however, did not address some key issues, most notably with the aircraft’s engines, which, over the years, have been notorious for flaming out without notice. For a single-engine aircraft, this has been a major flaw.


QUESTION 4

With reference to the Agni-P missile, consider the following statements:

  1. Agni-P is a two-stage solid-fuel propelled missile with an operational range of 1,000 km to 2,000 km.

  2. It can carry high explosive, thermobaric or nuclear warheads.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) test-fired the Agni-Prime (Agni-P) missile from a rail-based mobile launcher.

  • Mobile launch platforms are crucial to a country’s second strike capabilities: that is, a country’s ability to survive a nuclear attack and then launch its own counterattack.

  • While the Agni-I platform continues to serve a specific use case, defence planners have long felt the need to upgrade some of its systems. Thus was born the Agni-P, which combines Agni-I’s range with propulsion and navigation technologies borrowed from the Agni-IV and Agni-V missiles.

  • With a mass of 11,000 kg, Agni-P is a two-stage solid-fuel propelled missile with an operational range of 1,000 km to 2,000 km. It can carry high explosive, thermobaric or nuclear warheads. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.


QUESTION 5

With reference to the enrichment of the Uranium, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the process of increasing the concentration of U-235 in a uranium sample.

  2. A 40 per cent enrichment of the Uranium is for civilian power reactors,

  3. A uranium sample enriched beyond 20 per cent is called highly enriched uranium, or HEU.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (b)

Explanation:

  • Uranium is the most common fissile material used in these processes, either to make electricity in civilian reactors, or in the weapons. But naturally occurring uranium is not fissile, meaning its nucleus is relatively stable and does not readily break up into nuclei of smaller elements. Naturally occurring uranium is primarily U-238, a slightly heavier isotope of the element. It is the slightly lighter uranium, called U-235, which is fissile. More than 99 per cent of naturally occurring uranium is U-238.

  • Enrichment is the process of increasing the concentration of U-235 in a uranium sample. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • These are the two most common use cases of enriched uranium — a 3-5 per cent enrichment for civilian power reactors, and over 90 per cent enrichment for building nuclear weapons. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • A uranium sample enriched beyond 20 per cent is called highly enriched uranium, or HEU, and its production and use is carefully monitored globally. Production or storage of HEUs are definitive pointers to a nuclear weapons programme, because there is no civilian use for anything enriched beyond 20 per cent. Hence, statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 6

Typhoons are a common phenomenon in:

(a) Indian Ocean

(b) Atlantic & Northeast Pacific

(c) Southern Pacific

(d) East and Southeast Asia

Answer (d)

Explanation:

  • Super Typhoon Ragasa battered Hong Kong with fierce winds and pounding rain, and headed into southern China.

  • It has forced two million people to evacuate in southern China and brought a “significant storm surge”, with waters in coastal areas rising more than 3 metres above the reference level in Hong Kong.

  • The storm is the most intense tropical cyclone recorded in 2025. At its peak, Ragasa was moving with the maximum sustained winds of 280 kmph. This was close to the upper limit of how intense storms can be on Earth.

  • Typhoons are a typical occurrence in the Northwest Pacific Ocean, especially in East and Southeast Asia, where countries such as Japan, the Philippines, China, Taiwan, and Vietnam are most affected.


QUESTION 7

With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Ladakh is included under the Sixth Schedule.

  2. The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 of the Indian Constitution provides for the formation of autonomous administrative regions called Autonomous District Councils.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (b)

Explanation:

  • Protestors demanding statehood and the Sixth Schedule for Ladakh set a BJP office on fire, and police fired teargas shells to disperse them on September 24. This triggered a massive shutdown sponsored by the Leh Apex Body (LAB) in Ladakh’s Leh town.

  • Over 90% of Ladakh’s population belongs to the Scheduled Tribes, there has been a consistent demand to include the region under the Sixth ScheduleHence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 of the Indian Constitution provides for the formation of autonomous administrative regions called Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), which govern tribal-majority areas in certain northeastern states. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • ADCs have up to 30 members with a term of five years and can make laws, rules and regulations on land, forest, water, agriculture, village councils, health, sanitation, village- and town-level policing, etc. Currently, there are 10 ADCs in the North East, with three each in Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram, and one in Tripura.


QUESTION 8

The Digital Bharat Nidhi aims to:

(a) promote India’s traditional handicrafts in global markets

(b) provide crop insurance to farmers against natural disasters

(c) bridge India’s digital divide and empower rural communities.

(d) establish new institutions for higher medical education in rural areas.

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched development projects worth over ₹60,000 crore in Jharsuguda, Odisha, focused on digital connectivity, infrastructure, and higher education.

  • During his visit, state-owned telecom operator Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) received a shot in the arm with the Prime Minister commissioning more than 97,500 4G mobile towers built with BSNL’s indigenous technology stack. The towers were built at a cost of about Rs 37,000 crore.

  • The development marked India’s entry into an exclusive group of countries, including Denmark, Sweden, South Korea and China, which manufacture their own telecom equipment.

  • The Prime Minister described the 100 per cent 4G saturation project, implemented under Digital Bharat Nidhi, which the government describes as a transformative step towards bridging India’s digital divide and empowering rural communities. Around 30,000 villages nationwide are set to be connected through this mission-mode project.


QUESTION 9

With reference to the PM-KISAN scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a government scheme offering financial support to small and marginal farmers across India.

  2. Under this initiative, eligible farmers receive ₹9,000 annually in two equal installments directly into their bank accounts.

  3. It is partially funded by the Government of India and partially by the state government.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (a)

Explanation:

  • The Centre released Rs 540 crore under the August-November instalment of the PM-KISAN scheme to beneficiaries in Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, and Uttarakhand, which were recently hit by floods.

  • PM-KISAN is a government scheme offering financial support to small and marginal farmers across India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • This initiative provides qualifying farmers with ₹6,000 annually in three equal installments, immediately deposited into their bank accounts. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • PM-KISAN is fully funded by the Indian government and provides timely financial assistance to farmers to improve their livelihoods and boost agricultural growth. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.


QUESTION 10

Mount Desert Island was in the news. It is located in:

(a) United States

(b) Australia

(c) Mexico

(d) Indonesia

Answer (a)

Explanation:

  • The first images from the joint NASA-ISRO satellite show a snapshot of the American landscape ranging from narrow waterways, islets dotting the fringes of an island, forests and wetlands, and large swathes of farms.

  • The first pictures from the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite, billed as the most expensive satellite ever built, were released by NASA earlier this week.

  • A photograph of Mount Desert Island on the Maine coast, captured on August 21, shows narrow waterways cutting across the island, as well as the islets dotting the waters around it.

  • Mount Desert Island is the largest island in Maine, USA. located in Hancock County, off the north-central coast.

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