Daily Prelims MCQs - Current Affairs - 8th September 2025
- TPP
- Sep 8
- 12 min read
Welcome to your Daily UPSC Prelims Current Affairs MCQs – 8th September 2025. This is part of our subject-wise daily series where Monday is dedicated to a Current Affairs & GS mix, helping aspirants revise high-yield developments across Polity & Governance, Economy, Social Sector, S&T, Geography/Environment, and Internal Security—all framed in UPSC-Prelims style.
Today’s set of 10 carefully designed MCQs blends policy updates, official data releases, strategic locations, and public-health alerts with crisp explanations to help you:
Strengthen conceptual clarity on definitions, legal provisions, and institutional mechanisms frequently tested in prelims.
Link dynamic news to static GS (constitutional articles, acts, and geography) for better retention and application.
Decode government reports and surveys (e.g., SRS 2023) to handle data-driven questions confidently.
Practice elimination and analytical skills with nuanced options that mirror UPSC’s question style.
Topics covered today include:
PVTGs: origin after the Dhebar Commission (1960–61), enumeration status, and state distribution.
SRS 2023 – Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): decade-long trend, best/worst performers, and interpretation.
Internal Security (Manipur): the Suspension of Operation (SoO) pact—KNO and UPF signatories.
FinTech & Payments: UPI–PayNow India–Singapore linkage—what it enables and how transfers work.
Education Policy: RTE Act, 2009—age coverage, pupil–teacher ratio norms, and 25% EWS quota.
Disease Burden & Screening: cancer trends (oral vs lung; early detection vs late discovery).
Stay consistent with these daily current-affairs quizzes to build a strong Prelims 2026 foundation, while simultaneously revising static GS through the lens of relevant, exam-worthy news.
Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).
QUESTION 1
With reference to the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), consider the following statements:
PVTGs were carved out as a special sub-category of Scheduled Tribes (STs) following the Dhebar Commission (1960–61) recommendations.
PVTGs are enumerated separately in the Census of India.
PVTGs are confined only to Odisha.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
What are PVTGs?
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are the most marginalized sections within the broader Scheduled Tribes (STs).
Identified by features like stagnant/declining population, low literacy, pre-agrarian technology (e.g., hunting, gathering, simple shifting cultivation), economic backwardness, and geographical isolation.
How did the category emerge?
The Dhebar Commission (1960–61)—set up to review the situation of STs—highlighted intra-tribal disparities and recommended a sub-classification for the most at-risk groups.
On this basis, the Union government created the PVTG sub-category in consultation with States/UTs. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Are PVTGs counted separately in the Census?
No. To date, PVTGs have not been enumerated separately in any Census round.
In Census tables, they usually appear within the larger ST category, often subsumed under broader tribal names, which complicates accurate headcounts and targeted welfare. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
Where are PVTGs found?
PVTGs are not limited to one state.
India currently recognizes 75 PVTGs, spread across 18 States and the Union Territory of Andaman & Nicobar Islands (e.g., Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Rajasthan, Gujarat, etc.) Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
Key Terms Explained
Scheduled Tribes (STs): Constitutionally recognized communities listed under Articles 341–342 (STs under Art. 342) for affirmative action and protective safeguards.
Sub-category (within STs): An administrative further classification to identify the most vulnerable among STs for focused policy support—in this case, PVTGs.
Dhebar Commission (1960–61): A Government of India commission chaired by U.N. Dhebar; recommended distinguishing the “primitive/most vulnerable” tribes within STs.
QUESTION 2
Based on the latest Sample Registration Survey (SRS) 2023 data, consider the following statements about India’s Infant Mortality Rate (IMR):
India’s IMR has risen during the last decade.
Kerala is the only state in India to have achieved a single-digit IMR.
Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh record the highest IMR in the country, each at 37.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
What is IMR?
Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): Number of deaths of children below one year of age per 1,000 live births in a year.
It is a key indicator of child health and healthcare access, often used by WHO and UNICEF to measure development.
Has India’s IMR increased in the last decade?
It has declined significantly.
According to SRS 2023, India’s IMR dropped by 37% in the last decade, from 40 (2013) to 25 (2023) deaths per 1,000 live births.
Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, and Karnataka recorded the steepest reductions, cutting IMR by more than half. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Is Kerala the only state with single-digit IMR?
Kerala does have the lowest IMR among large states (5 per 1,000)—comparable to developed nations.
But other small states and UTs—like Manipur, Sikkim, Goa, and almost all Union Territories—also report single-digit IMRs.
Hence, Kerala is not the only state; it is only the leading big state with such achievement. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Which states have the worst IMR?
Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh all recorded IMRs of 37, the highest in India.
These are followed by Odisha and Assam (30 each).
This shows regional inequality in health outcomes, with central/eastern states lagging far behind Kerala and the North-East. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.
QUESTION 3
The regions of Changthang, Mudh airstrip, and Suru Valley—recently in the news—are located in which Union Territory/State?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Ladakh
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Ladakh’s Lt. Governor recently emphasized development in remote hamlets and valleys, aiming to bridge gaps between urban centres and distant villages.
Focus areas include:
Infrastructure expansion (roads, telecom, tourist amenities).
Tourism promotion (cafeterias, washrooms, souvenir shops every 30 km).
Strategic & civil infrastructure (revival and expansion of airstrips).
Key Locations in News
1. Changthang Plateau
Meaning: "Northern Plateau" in Tibetan.
Location: Eastern Ladakh, extending into Tibet.
Significance:
Known for nomadic Changpa tribes and Pashmina goat rearing.
Features Umling La Pass (19,024 ft)—the world’s highest motorable road.
Hosts Indian Astronomical Observatory (Hanle)—one of the world’s highest observatories.
Strategically important near the LAC (Line of Actual Control) with China.
2. Mudh Airstrip
A high-altitude airstrip in Ladakh.
Strategic Role: Enhances India’s defence logistics along the LAC.
Civil Role: Expected to improve civil aviation connectivity for Ladakh’s remote areas.
3. Suru Valley
Location: Near Kargil, Ladakh.
River: Drained by the Suru River, a tributary of the Indus.
Tourism: Known for its lush green meadows, apricot orchards, and views of Nun-Kun peaks (7,000m+ range).
Development Plans: Tourism infrastructure + better road connectivity.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following organisations have signed the tripartite Suspension of Operation (SoO) agreement with the Government of India and the Government of Manipur?
Kuki National Organisation (KNO)
National Democratic Front of Bodoland (NDFB)
National Liberation Front of Tripura
United People’s Front (UPF)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer (d)
Explanation:
What is the Suspension of Operation (SoO) Agreement?
The SoO agreement is a ceasefire/truce pact signed between the Government of India, the Government of Manipur, and certain insurgent groups.
Signed first in 2008, its purpose was to reduce violence, enable dialogue, and rehabilitate militants who agreed to lay down arms.
Under the pact:
Militant cadres are kept in designated camps under monitoring.
They suspend armed operations against security forces.
In return, the government halts counter-insurgency offensives against them.
Who signed the SoO in Manipur?
Kuki National Organisation (KNO) → One of the two umbrella groups representing multiple Kuki insurgent factions.
United People’s Front (UPF) → Another umbrella organisation of Kuki-Chin groups.
Together, they signed the tripartite SoO agreement on 22 August 2008 with:
Government of India, and
Government of Manipur.
The pact has been periodically extended, but lapsed temporarily during the May 2023 ethnic violence in Manipur. It was later extended again in September 2025.
Who did not sign?
National Democratic Front of Bodoland (NDFB): An insurgent group from Assam, not part of the Manipur SoO.
National Liberation Front of Tripura (NLFT): A separatist group from Tripura, unrelated to Manipur insurgency.
QUESTION 5
With reference to the UPI–PayNow cross-border payment linkage, consider the following statements:
It enables users of both countries’ fast payment systems to make safe, convenient cross-border fund transfers.
The linkage has been established between India and the Maldives.
Funds can be transferred between the two countries only through a Virtual Payment Address (VPA) and not via mobile number.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
What is UPI–PayNow linkage?
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) – India’s flagship instant real-time payment system developed by NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India).
PayNow – Singapore’s fast payment system that enables users to send and receive money instantly using identifiers like mobile number or NRIC/FIN.
In February 2023, India and Singapore launched the cross-border linkage of UPI and PayNow, allowing users in both countries to transfer money seamlessly.
The UPI–PayNow linkage allows users in both India and Singapore to carry out immediate, cost-effective, and secure cross-border transactions. This initiative strengthens digital financial connectivity and aligns with the G20’s vision of faster and cheaper cross-border payments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The partnership is not with the Maldives. It is between India and Singapore, announced in February 2023 as part of strengthening bilateral cooperation in digitalisation, economy, and people-to-people connectivity.Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Transfers can be done using multiple identifiers—UPI ID (VPA), mobile number, and registered PayNow credentials. Restricting transfers to only VPA is factually wrong. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following acts have been replaced by the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025?
The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920
The Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939
The Foreigners Act, 1946
The Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025, which came into effect on September 1, 2025, consolidates India’s immigration laws by repealing four older legislations. This move aims to create a single, unified legal framework for regulating the entry, stay, movement, and exit of foreigners in India.
The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920
This Act required foreigners to carry valid passports to enter India. It is now subsumed under the 2025 Bill. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939
This law required foreigners staying in India to register with authorities and report changes in address, duration of stay, etc. It has been repealed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Foreigners Act, 1946
The most important law, it empowered the government to regulate foreigners’ entry, movement, and stay, and to deport them if necessary. It is now replaced by the new Bill. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000
This law penalised airlines and shipping companies for bringing in passengers without valid travel documents. The provisions are now absorbed into the new framework. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
QUESTION 7
Regarding the provisions of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, examine the following statements:
Children between 6 and 14 years of age are entitled to free elementary education under the Act.
The Act does not lay down any requirement for maintaining minimum pupil–teacher ratios.
Private unaided schools must earmark 25% of their entry-level seats for children from disadvantaged backgrounds, with the cost reimbursed by the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act) was enacted to make elementary education a fundamental right.
On free education: The Act explicitly ensures free and compulsory education for all children aged 6 to 14 years. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
On private school obligations: According to Section 12(1)(c), all private unaided schools are mandated to set aside 25% of seats at the entry level for children belonging to economically weaker sections and other disadvantaged categories. The government reimburses these institutions for the expenditure. Thus, Statement 3 is correct.
On standards in schools: Contrary to Statement 2, the Act does prescribe minimum benchmarks regarding pupil–teacher ratios, infrastructure, teacher qualifications, and availability of learning resources like libraries. It also bans practices such as corporal punishment, screening tests, and collection of capitation fees. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
QUESTION 8
With reference to cancer in India, consider the following statements:
Men form a larger share of total cancer cases in the country.
Oral cancer incidence is rising at the national level.
Lung cancer is easier to detect early than breast cancer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
What the latest registry analysis shows
An analysis of 43 population-based cancer registries reports a lifetime risk of about 11% for developing cancer in India, with an estimated 15.6 lakh (1.56 million) new cases and 8.74 lakh (0.874 million) deaths in 2024.
Lifetime risk (definition): The probability that an average person will develop a disease at some point during their life.
Cancer registry (definition): A systematic database that records all new cancer cases in a defined population, allowing trends over time to be studied.
Lakh (definition): A South Asian unit equal to 100,000.
Statement 1 is incorrect: “Men form a larger share of total cancer cases”
Registry data (2015–2019) indicate women accounted for a slightly higher share of total cases (~51.1%) recorded, while constituting a lower share of deaths (~45%).
Why this matters: The higher proportion of cases among women is partly due to breast and cervical cancers, which remain prominent and relatively more amenable to early detection and treatment, improving outcomes.
Statement 2 is correct: “Oral cancer incidence is rising nationally”
India has seen a notable increase in oral cancer, closely linked to tobacco chewing, areca nut use, and other lifestyle factors.
Importantly, oral cancer has overtaken lung cancer as the most common cancer among men in registry reports. This confirms the upward trend in incidence.
Incidence (definition): The number of new cases occurring in a population over a specified period.
Oral cancer (definition): Cancers arising in the mouth (tongue, gums, buccal mucosa, etc.), often associated with smokeless tobacco and areca nut consumption.
Statement 3 is incorrect: “Lung cancer is easier to detect early than breast cancer” —In practice, breast cancer is more likely to be detected early because many patients or clinicians can feel a palpable lump or notice other localized changes; screening and clinical breast exams further aid detection.
Lung cancer typically lacks clear early symptoms, and imaging-based screening (like low-dose CT) is not yet universally implemented as routine population screening in India. As a result, lung cancers are often diagnosed at later stages.
Screening (definition): Testing apparently healthy people to detect disease at an early, more treatable stage.
Palpable lump (definition): A mass that can be felt on examination, prompting earlier medical evaluation.
QUESTION 9
With reference to an earthquake, consider the following statements:
Shallow earthquakes generally have a depth of between zero and 70 km.
Deeper quakes are generally more dangerous than shallow quakes.
Shallow earthquakes spread farther as seismic waves move radially upwards to the surface.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
An earthquake of 6.0 magnitude struck north-east Afghanistan, killing more than 800 people and injuring at least 2,000.
An earthquake is an intense shaking of the ground caused by movement under the Earth’s surface. It happens when two blocks of the Earth suddenly slip past one another. This releases stored-up ‘elastic strain’ energy in the form of seismic waves, which spread through the Earth and cause the shaking of the ground.
Shallow quakes are generally more dangerous as they carry more energy when they emerge to the surface, when compared to quakes that occur deeper underneath the surface. Shallow earthquakes generally have a depth of between zero and 70 km. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
Deeper quakes do indeed spread farther as seismic waves move radially upwards to the surface, they lose energy while travelling greater distances. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
QUESTION 10
With reference to the Ebola disease, consider the following statements:
It is caused by a group of viruses, known as orthoebolaviruses.
It was first discovered in the Democratic Republic of the Congo and is found primarily in sub-Saharan Africa.
It can be contracted through bodily fluids.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (c)
Explanation:
A new Ebola outbreak in Congo is suspected of causing 15 deaths among 28 people with symptoms, the health ministry in the central African country said.
Ebola disease is caused by a group of viruses, known as orthoebolaviruses. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Orthoebolaviruses were discovered in 1976 in the Democratic Republic of the Congo and are found primarily in sub-Saharan Africa. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Ebola virus is highly contagious and can be contracted through bodily fluids such as vomit, blood, or semen. The disease it causes is a rare but severe — and often fatal — illness in people. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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