Daily Prelims MCQs - Sci-Tech, Environment and Geography - 9th September 2025
- TPP
- Sep 9
- 14 min read
Welcome to your Daily UPSC Prelims Current Affairs MCQs – 9th September 2025. This is part of our subject-wise daily series where Tuesday is dedicated to Science & Tech, Environment, and Geography, helping you revise high-yield concepts, current data points, and map locations—all in UPSC-Prelims style.
Today’s set of 10 carefully designed MCQs blends phenomena, treaties, ecology, disaster risks, and frontier tech with crisp explanations to help you:
Strengthen conceptual clarity on core S&T/Env/Geo terms (umbra–penumbra, Rayleigh vs Compton, shallow vs deep quakes, GLOFs).
Link dynamic news to static GS, maps, and biomes for better retention and elimination.
Decode reports/guidelines (CWC, High Seas/BBNJ, fishing LOA rules) for data-driven questions.
Practice UPSC-style elimination with nuanced option traps and definitions.
Topics covered today include:
Lunar eclipses: geometry, full vs new moon, and the red hue via Rayleigh scattering.
Bombay (hh/Oh) blood group: H antigen, FUT1, anti-H, and transfusion logic.
Himalayan glacial lakes: CWC (June 2025) trends and GLOF risk; state/UT ordering.
High Seas Treaty (BBNJ) under UNCLOS: scope, aims, and legal architecture.
Indian fishing guidelines: LOA for high-seas operations and IUU controls.
Miombo woodland: biome classification and distribution.
Stay consistent with these daily quizzes to build a strong Prelims 2026 foundation, while steadily revising static GS through relevant, exam-worthy current affairs.
Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).
QUESTION 1
Consider the following statements regarding lunar eclipses:
A lunar eclipse occurs when Earth’s shadow falls on the Moon.
The crimson appearance of the Moon during a lunar eclipse is due to Compton scattering.
Lunar eclipses can occur only during the new moon phase.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
A lunar eclipse is an astronomical event that occurs when the Earth comes directly between the Sun and the Moon, casting its shadow on the Moon. This can happen only during the full moon phase, when the Sun, Earth, and Moon align in a straight line.
Statement 1 is correct: As the Earth obstructs sunlight, its shadow (umbra and penumbra) falls on the Moon, causing a partial or total darkening of the Moon's surface.
There are three types of lunar eclipses:
Total Lunar Eclipse – the Moon passes entirely into Earth's umbra.
Partial Lunar Eclipse – only part of the Moon enters the umbra.
Penumbral Eclipse – the Moon passes through the outer shadow (penumbra), causing only a subtle dimming.
Umbra: The darkest part of a shadow, where the light source is completely blocked.
Penumbral Shadow: The lighter, outer part of a shadow where light is only partially blocked.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The reddish-orange glow observed during a total lunar eclipse is due to Rayleigh scattering, not Compton scattering.
Rayleigh scattering occurs when sunlight passes through Earth’s atmosphere. Shorter wavelengths like blue and violet scatter away, while longer wavelengths like red and orange bend around Earth and reach the Moon.
This gives the Moon its dramatic red hue, often referred to as a "Blood Moon."
In contrast, Compton scattering is a concept from quantum physics, where high-energy photons (like X-rays or gamma rays) interact with electrons. It is not relevant to visible light or lunar eclipses.
Rayleigh Scattering: Scattering of light by particles smaller than the light's wavelength, causing red/orange hues during eclipses.
Compton Scattering: A quantum effect involving X-rays or gamma rays; not applicable here.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Lunar eclipses happen only during the full moon phase, when the Moon is opposite the Sun, and Earth is in between.
Solar eclipses, on the other hand, occur during the new moon phase, when the Moon is positioned between the Sun and Earth.
Full Moon: The Moon is fully illuminated by the Sun and located on the opposite side of Earth.
New Moon: The Moon lies between Earth and Sun; necessary for solar eclipses.
QUESTION 2
With reference to the depth of earthquakes and their effects on the Earth's surface, consider the following statements:
Shallow-focus earthquakes are generally less destructive as they release less energy near the surface.
Deep-focus earthquakes tend to affect larger areas due to the radial upward spread of seismic waves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b)
Explanation:
An earthquake is the shaking of the Earth's surface caused by a sudden release of energy stored in the Earth's crust. This energy radiates outward as seismic waves from a point known as the hypocenter (or focus), while the epicenter is the point directly above it on the surface.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Shallow-focus earthquakes—those that occur at depths between 0 to 70 km—are typically more destructive than deeper ones. Since the seismic energy has a shorter distance to travel, it reaches the surface with minimal energy loss, resulting in more intense shaking.
Major disasters like the 2010 Haiti earthquake and 2015 Nepal earthquake were shallow and caused widespread devastation.
The proximity to human settlements makes shallow quakes more dangerous in terms of both casualties and infrastructure damage.
Shallow-focus Earthquake: An earthquake occurring at a depth of less than 70 km; tends to cause more damage due to proximity to the surface.
Statement 2 is correct: Deep-focus earthquakes, occurring at depths greater than 300 km, release energy that spreads radially upwards and outward. Although the energy dissipates over the greater distance, the waves can travel farther, making the quake felt across a broader area—albeit with lower intensity.
For example, the 2013 Sea of Okhotsk earthquake occurred at a depth of over 600 km but was felt in Russia, Japan, and even parts of China.
The deeper the hypocenter, the broader the range, but usually less destructive due to energy loss through the layers of the Earth.
Deep-focus Earthquake: An earthquake that originates at a depth exceeding 300 km; felt over a large area but with reduced surface intensity.
QUESTION 3
With reference to the rare Bombay Blood Group, consider the following statements:
It is also referred to as the ‘hh’ or ‘Oh’ blood group.
It contains a high concentration of the H antigen, which is required for A or B antigen formation.
Individuals with this blood group can easily express A or B antigens as per their genetic makeup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Bombay Blood Group (BBG) is a rare blood phenotype first discovered in Mumbai (formerly Bombay) in 1952 by Dr. Y. M. Bhende. It is considered one of the rarest blood groups in the world, with an occurrence rate of approximately 1 in 10,000 individuals in India, and even rarer globally.
Statement 1 is correct: The Bombay Blood Group is scientifically termed ‘hh’ or ‘Oh’ because individuals with this blood type lack the H antigen, which is the foundation for the formation of A and B antigens in the ABO blood group system.
H antigen: A basic sugar molecule present on red blood cells that acts as the building block for A and B antigens in the ABO system.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the statement, individuals with the Bombay Blood Group do not possess the H antigen at all. This absence is what differentiates them from even blood group O, which does have the H antigen but lacks A and B antigens.
People with BBG lack the FUT1 gene responsible for synthesizing the H antigen on red blood cells.
As a result, they cannot form any antigen of the ABO system.
FUT1 gene: A gene that helps produce the H antigen. Its inactivation leads to the Bombay phenotype.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Since the H antigen is a precursor for both A and B antigens, its absence in Bombay Blood Group individuals means they cannot express A or B antigens, regardless of their underlying genotype (i.e., even if they inherit A or B alleles from parents).
This makes transfusions highly complex, as they can only receive blood from other Bombay phenotype donors.
Even O group blood, which has no A or B antigens, still has the H antigen, and will cause a severe reaction in BBG patients due to anti-H antibodies present in their plasma.
Anti-H antibodies: Antibodies formed in BBG individuals that attack any red blood cells containing the H antigen.
QUESTION 4
Consider the following statements with reference to Project Kuiper:
It is a collaborative space initiative launched by NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA).
The project is primarily aimed at exploring the Kuiper Belt and studying distant trans-Neptunian celestial bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Project Kuiper is a satellite-based broadband internet initiative developed by Amazon, the global e-commerce and technology giant. The project was announced with the goal of launching a constellation of over 3,200 low-Earth orbit (LEO) satellites to provide high-speed internet access to underserved and remote regions across the globe.
This positions it as a direct competitor to SpaceX’s Starlink.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Project Kuiper is not a joint venture by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) or the European Space Agency (ESA).
Instead, it is wholly owned and operated by Amazon, under the division Kuiper Systems LLC, which falls under Amazon’s Devices & Services organization.
Although Amazon may partner with launch service providers (like ULA or Blue Origin), NASA and ESA are not stakeholders or participants in this project.
Kuiper Systems LLC: A subsidiary of Amazon responsible for developing the satellite broadband network under Project Kuiper.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Despite the name “Kuiper,” Project Kuiper has no connection to the Kuiper Belt — the region of the solar system beyond Neptune that contains icy bodies, dwarf planets, and trans-Neptunian objects.
The project’s name is inspired by Dutch-American astronomer Gerard Kuiper, but it is purely symbolic.
Project Kuiper’s focus is on deploying a low-Earth orbit satellite network to deliver internet connectivity, not space exploration or astrophysical research.
Kuiper Belt: A distant, icy region of the solar system beyond Neptune’s orbit, home to dwarf planets like Pluto and other trans-Neptunian objects.
Trans-Neptunian Objects (TNOs): Celestial bodies located in the solar system beyond the orbit of Neptune.
QUESTION 5
“WISPIT 2b” was recently discovered and made headlines in the field of astronomy. It refers to:
(a) Asteroid
(b) Comet
(c) A crater on the Moon
(d) Newly forming planet
Answer (d)
Explanation:
WISPIT 2b is a young, gas giant exoplanet recently discovered by astronomers using advanced ground-based telescopes. It is located approximately 430 light-years away from Earth and is providing new insights into the process of planet formation in the early stages of a solar system.
WISPIT 2b is roughly the size of Jupiter and is only about 5 million years old, making it a cosmic infant compared to Earth’s 4.6-billion-year-old age. It is still actively forming—accreting gas and dust from its surrounding protoplanetary disc.
The planet orbits a young star named WISPIT 2.
This system contains a multi-ringed protoplanetary disc, a rotating disc of gas and dust from which planets form.
WISPIT 2b is the first confirmed planet observed within such a disc, showing distinct gaps and channels carved by the forming planet itself.
Protoplanetary Disc: A rotating disk of dense gas and dust surrounding a newly formed star, from which planets and other solar system bodies originate.
Accretion: The gradual growth of a celestial body by gravitationally attracting additional matter, such as gas and dust.
Observation Technology:
The planet was observed using the Very Large Telescope (VLT) in the Atacama Desert of Chile, one of the world’s most advanced astronomical observatories.
The discovery is significant for understanding how gas giants like Jupiter form and evolve in young solar systems.
Very Large Telescope (VLT): A powerful optical telescope array operated by the European Southern Observatory (ESO), used for deep-space observations.
QUESTION 6
What is the correct ascending order (from lowest to highest) of Indian states and union territories in terms of number of expanding glacial lakes, as per the June 2025 report by the Central Water Commission (CWC)?
1. Uttarakhand
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Ladakh
5. Sikkim
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1—5—2—4—3
(b) 5—4—3—2—1
(c) 4—5—2—3—1
(d) 3—4—5—1—2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
In its monthly monitoring report for June 2025, the Central Water Commission (CWC) revealed that over 400 glacial lakes within India are expanding at an alarming rate. These lakes are located in ecologically sensitive and disaster-prone zones of the Himalayan region and pose a serious risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).
What the Report Highlights:
The report flagged 432 glacial lakes across six Himalayan states and UTs for vigorous and continuous monitoring.
These expanding lakes are being monitored due to their potential to cause sudden, large-scale floods, especially in downstream valleys.
Data on Expanding Glacial Lakes (June 2025 Report):
Region | No. of Expanding Lakes |
Uttarakhand | 5 |
Sikkim | 47 |
Jammu and Kashmir | 57 |
Ladakh | 120 |
Arunachal Pradesh | 197 |
QUESTION 8
With reference to the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdictions (BBNJ) initiative, consider the following statements:
It addresses actions in international waters (also known as the High Seas) by aiming to reduce pollution and over-exploitation of marine resources while encouraging the sustainable utilization of oceanic biodiversity.
It is popularly referred to as the High Seas Treaty.
It is intended to function as a legally binding global agreement under the framework of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The High Seas Treaty, formally known as the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdictions (BBNJ) agreement, deals with activities that take place in ocean areas beyond the jurisdiction of any single nation. These areas are typically located outside of countries' Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) — i.e., beyond 200 nautical miles from the coast — and are referred to as international waters or high seas, which cover approximately 64% of the ocean's surface.
The core aim of the BBNJ Treaty is to mitigate pollution, prevent unregulated extraction of marine resources, and to promote sustainable development of ocean biodiversity — that is, using the resources without degrading their availability for future generations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
This agreement is commonly termed the High Seas Treaty, making statement 2 correct.
Additionally, this treaty is structured to be a legally binding international instrument and will operate under the umbrella of the UNCLOS. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) is a comprehensive framework that defines nations' rights and responsibilities in the world’s oceans, including navigation rights, territorial sea limits, and the management of marine natural resources. So, statement 3 is also correct.
Additional Notes:
India has signed the BBNJ Treaty but has not yet ratified it. So far, 55 countries have ratified the agreement. According to the treaty provisions, it will enter into force 120 days after the 60th country ratifies it.
In preparation for the treaty's implementation, India plans to introduce new legislation to protect its interests in international waters. The Ministry of Earth Sciences has constituted a 12-member drafting panel led by Supreme Court Senior Advocate Sanjay Upadhyay, a well-known environmental lawyer, to frame the new law aligned with the treaty’s goals.
Although a domestic law is not mandatory for ratifying the treaty, India is proactively legislating to ensure it can effectively fulfill the obligations and take advantage of benefits offered by the BBNJ, such as:
Conducting marine environmental impact assessments before undertaking large-scale ocean projects.
Building institutional frameworks and technical capacity for managing marine biodiversity.
Participating in equitable benefit-sharing from marine genetic resources, as stipulated under the treaty.
QUESTION 8
With reference to the recently issued guidelines concerning Indian fishing vessels, consider the following statements:
No fishing vessel that is registered under the Indian flag is permitted to operate or engage in any fishing-related activity in High Seas (international waters beyond national jurisdiction) without first obtaining a valid Letter of Authorisation (LOA) from the designated Issuing Authority under these guidelines.
The validity period of this Letter of Authorisation (LOA) is one year from the date it is granted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying recently released draft rules and guidelines aimed at promoting sustainable fishing practices within India's Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and the High Seas — areas beyond national jurisdiction where fishing activities are regulated internationally.
India’s coastline stretches for about 8,118 km, supported by 1,457 landing centers and 3,461 fishing villages. The Indian EEZ covers roughly 2 million square kilometers, with an estimated annual capture fisheries potential of 5.31 million metric tons, according to data from the Department of Fisheries.
According to the new guidelines, no Indian-flagged fishing vessel — meaning any vessel registered in India and flying its flag — is permitted to engage in fishing or related activities in the High Seas without obtaining a valid Letter of Authorisation (LOA) from the designated Issuing Authority. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
However, the LOA is valid for a period of three years from the date of issuance, not one year as suggested in statement 2. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The guidelines emphasize the need to combat Illegal, Unreported, and Unregulated (IUU) fishing, which poses a significant threat to marine ecosystems. Indian fishing vessels operating in international waters are required to comply with the conservation and management measures laid down by relevant Regional Fisheries Management Organisations (RFMOs). These measures include restrictions on catch limits, fishing gear, bycatch reduction, regulation of Fish Aggregating Devices (FADs), and mandatory voyage reporting to ensure sustainable fishing.
Furthermore, the guidelines propose programs for training and capacity-building to equip traditional and small-scale fishers with the skills needed for High Seas fishing and to improve the efficiency of the fishing value chain, thus supporting sustainable livelihoods.
QUESTION 9
Consider the following statements about Miombo woodland:
It is a forest ecosystem found in a temperate region.
It comprises grasslands, bushlands, and savannahs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The Miombo woodland refers to a vast dry forest ecosystem found in southern Africa, covering approximately 2.7 million square kilometers. It spans across several countries including Angola, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Malawi, Mozambique, Tanzania, Zambia, and Zimbabwe.
Ecologically, Miombo is classified as part of the tropical and subtropical grasslands, savannahs, and shrublands biome. These are warm climate zones, characterized by a mix of grassy plains, scattered shrubs, and deciduous trees that shed their leaves during the dry season. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
However, it is not located in a temperate region. The term temperate refers to zones with mild to moderate climates typically found between the tropics and the polar circles — such as parts of Europe, North America, or East Asia. Miombo, in contrast, lies within the tropical and subtropical zones of Africa, experiencing a distinct dry season and supporting drought-adapted vegetation. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
QUESTION 10
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), consider the following statements:
It provides comprehensive insurance against natural calamities, pests, and diseases.
Punjab was the first state to implement the scheme in 2016.
Farmers pay a nominal premium — 2% for Kharif crops, 1.5% for Rabi crops and 5% for horticultural and commercial crops.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a flagship agricultural insurance scheme launched by the Government of India in 2016. Its primary objective is to provide financial protection to farmers in case of crop losses resulting from natural calamities, pests, or diseases. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
Under the scheme, farmers pay a nominal premium — that is, a small fixed percentage of the sum insured, while the balance premium is shared between the Centre and the state governments. The premium rates are:
2% for Kharif crops (crops sown during the monsoon season, such as rice and maize),
1.5% for Rabi crops (crops grown in winter, like wheat and barley),
5% for horticultural and commercial crops (such as fruits, vegetables, sugarcane, and cotton). Hence, statement 3 is also correct.
However, Punjab has never implemented the PMFBY since its inception. The state cited multiple reasons for opting out, such as:
The financial burden of paying the government’s share of the premium.
Concerns over the transparency and efficiency of insurance claim settlements.
The high irrigation coverage in Punjab (about 99%), which significantly reduces crop risk compared to other states. For context, the national average irrigation coverage is only about 55%.
Objections to the cluster-based model of the scheme, which groups both irrigated and non-irrigated areas together. This model was seen as unfair for Punjab, as it potentially increased the premium burden for its mostly irrigated farmlands.
Therefore, the claim in statement 2 — that Punjab was the first state to implement the scheme — is incorrect.
Additional Notes:
In 2020, PMFBY was revamped to improve its implementation. Key changes included:
Voluntary enrollment for farmers (previously it was mandatory for those with crop loans),
Flexible sum insured calculations for states,
Stricter timelines for premium payments and claim settlements,
Mandatory multi-year contracts with insurers to ensure long-term commitment and accountability.
Despite these reforms, Punjab continues to stay out of PMFBY, insisting on a state-specific crop insurance model tailored to its local conditions.
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