Daily Prelims MCQs - Polity - 27th August 2025
- TPP
- 5 days ago
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Updated: 4 days ago
Welcome to this daily set of UPSC Prelims Polity Current Affairs MCQs (20th August 2025).This quiz features 8 carefully framed multiple-choice questions with detailed explanations, integrating both static polity concepts and contemporary issues connected to the Constitution.
These polity-based MCQs are designed to help UPSC aspirants:
Reinforce conceptual clarity on constitutional provisions, statutory bodies, and parliamentary practices
Link static polity with current developments, including new legislations like the 2023 Act on Election Commissioners
Understand factual precision through inline definitions and constitutional references (e.g., Articles 324, 74th Amendment Act)
Practice exam-oriented reasoning by eliminating distractors and focusing on core constitutional safeguards
This set covers important topics such as:
Distinction between civil and criminal law and their standards of proof
Appointment process of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners under the 2023 Act
Metropolitan areas and urban local bodies under the 74th Constitutional Amendment
Removal procedure of the CEC and Election Commissioners under Article 324(5) and Article 124(4)
Nature and mandate of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) and more...
Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).
QUESTION 1
Consider the following statements about civil and criminal law:
Property disputes, contract breaches, and family law matters such as divorce and child custody come under civil law.
Criminal law deals with acts that are considered offences against the state or society as a whole.
In a criminal case, the plaintiff must prove their case on a “preponderance of probabilities”.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Civil Law
Civil law resolves disputes between private individuals or organisations.
Its purpose is not punishment but remedy—usually in the form of damages (monetary compensation) or injunctions (court orders to do or stop doing something).
Examples: property disputes, breach of contract, divorce, child custody, and recovery of money. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Criminal Law
Criminal law covers acts seen as offences against society or the state (e.g., theft, cheating, assault, murder).
Proceedings are initiated by the state/prosecutor, not a private individual.
Objective → punish the offender and deter future crimes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Burden of Proof
In civil cases, the plaintiff must prove on a “preponderance of probabilities” → meaning their version of events is more likely true than the other side’s.
In criminal cases, the prosecution must prove guilt “beyond reasonable doubt”, a much higher standard due to the severe consequences (e.g., imprisonment or death penalty). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
QUESTION 2
The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and the Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a three-member Selection Committee. This Committee consists of:
1. Prime Minister
2. Leader of the Opposition (LoP)
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. Vice-President of India
5. One member of the Union Cabinet
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 5
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body under Article 324, responsible for conducting free and fair elections.
The process of appointment of the CEC and Election Commissioners is governed by the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023.
As per the 2023 Act, the Selection Committee comprises:
Prime Minister (as head of government),
Leader of the Opposition (LoP) in Lok Sabha, and
One Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Vice-President of India are not part of this committee.
QUESTION 3
With reference to the Metropolitan Council under urban local governance, consider the following statements:
It is recognised under the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992.
The municipal council members, including the mayor or president, are elected indirectly.
A metropolitan area is defined as an area having a population of above 10 lakh.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Recognition under Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992
The 74th Amendment gave constitutional status to urban local bodies (ULBs) and recognised three types:
Nagar Panchayats → areas in transition from rural to urban.
Municipal Councils (Nagar Palikas) → smaller urban areas.
Municipal Corporations (Mahanagar Palikas) → larger urban areas.
Metropolitan areas were also defined. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Election of municipal members
The 74th Amendment provides that members of municipalities, including mayors or presidents, are generally directly elected by the people.
Statement 2 says “indirectly”, which is incorrect.
Definition of metropolitan area
A metropolitan area is defined as one with a population above 10 lakh (1 million), comprising two or more municipalities/urban areas with contiguous growth.
Example: Delhi NCR, Mumbai Metropolitan Region, etc. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
QUESTION 4
Consider the following statements regarding the removal of members of the Election Commission of India:
Article 324(5) of the Constitution mentions that the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
Any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner can be removed only on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Tenure of CEC → The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed for six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. Service conditions and benefits are the same as a Supreme Court judge.
Removal of CEC (Article 324(5)) → The CEC can be removed only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
This does not use the phrase “special majority in both Houses”, but instead refers to the procedure under Article 124(4).
That procedure requires proved misbehaviour or incapacity, and removal by Parliament through an address supported by special majority in both Houses. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect (it simplifies the wording wrongly).
Removal of other Election Commissioners → Article 324(5) clearly states that any other Election Commissioner or Regional Commissioner cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the CEC (not the President). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
QUESTION 5
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a:
(a) Constitutional Body
(b) Quasi-Judicial Body
(c) Statutory Body
(d) Non-Statutory Body
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The NCPCR was created under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, which makes it a statutory body (i.e., established by an Act of Parliament).
Its mandate is to ensure that all laws, policies, programmes, and administrative mechanisms conform to the principles of child rights as laid down in:
The Indian Constitution, and
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC).
Definition of a child: Any individual below 18 years of age (0–18 years).
Recent example: The Supreme Court dismissed an appeal by NCPCR in a case concerning whether a 16-year-old Muslim girl could enter into a valid marriage. The Court held that NCPCR had no locus standi (legal standing) in this matter.
QUESTION 6
Consider the following Committees of the Constituent Assembly of India:
1. Committee on the Rules of Procedure
2. Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag
3. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly
4. Finance and Staff Committee
Rajendra Prasad was not the Chairman of which of the above?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad (later the first President of India) chaired several important committees of the Constituent Assembly, such as:
Rules of Procedure Committee
Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag
Finance and Staff Committee
However, the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly was chaired by G.V. Mavalankar (who later became the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha).
QUESTION 7
Which one of the following provinces/states had the largest representation in the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Madras
(b) Bombay
(c) United Province
(d) Bihar
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed in 1946 to draft the Constitution. The strength of each province/state in the Assembly was determined on the basis of its population.
Among all, the United Province (present-day Uttar Pradesh) had the highest number of members – 55 (as on 31st December 1947).
It was followed by:
Madras → 49 members
Bihar → 36 members
QUESTION 8
Examine the following two statements:
The Rajya Sabha has only a limited role with respect to a Money Bill.
The Rajya Sabha can participate in voting on the Demands for Grants of different Ministries/Departments, and no withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund of India can take place unless both Houses pass the Appropriation Bill.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Money Bill: As per Article 110 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Money Bill, but the Lok Sabha may accept or reject them. Thus, its authority is restricted. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Demands for Grants: These are proposals placed in Parliament for approval of expenditure for different Ministries/Departments. Only the Lok Sabha has the power to vote on them. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Budget but cannot vote on these grants.
Appropriation Bill: After the Demands for Grants are voted in Lok Sabha, this Bill is introduced to authorise withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India. It must be passed by both Houses for funds to be legally drawn. However, since Rajya Sabha does not vote on Demands for Grants. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
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