Daily Prelims MCQs - Polity - 20th August 2025
- TPP
- Aug 21
- 9 min read
Welcome to this daily set of UPSC Prelims Polity Current Affairs MCQs (20th August 2025). This quiz features 8 high-quality multiple-choice questions with comprehensive explanations, covering foundational and contemporary issues related to the Indian Polity and Constitution.
These polity-based MCQs are designed to help UPSC aspirants:
Strengthen understanding of key constitutional provisions and institutions
Learn how static polity concepts connect with historical and current events
Master factual accuracy through inline definitions and constitutional references
Practice elimination and logical reasoning for Prelims-type framing
This set covers important topics such as:
Parliamentary Secretariat and its constitutional status (Art. 98)
Structure and tenure of Lok Sabha as per Articles 79–83
MGNREGS evolution and performance trends post-COVID
Vacation of seats under Article 101
Eligibility criteria in India’s first general elections of 1952
Institutional safeguards ensuring independence of the CAG (Articles 148–151) and more...
Click Here to read the Monthly Current Affairs Pointers (CAP).
QUESTION 1
Concerning the Secretariat of each House of Parliament, examine the following statements:
The Parliament has the authority to enact laws that determine the process of recruitment and the service conditions for individuals appointed to the secretariat staff.
The existence of a parliamentary secretariat is not explicitly mentioned anywhere in the Constitution of India.
There is a unified secretariat for both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, functioning as a single administrative body.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: Under Article 98(2), the Parliament is empowered to make laws regarding the recruitment process and service conditions (i.e., pay, promotion, tenure, etc.) of the secretarial staff appointed in either House.– This ensures that the legislature has autonomy in managing its own human resources.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: It is incorrect to say that the Constitution is silent on this matter. In fact, Article 98(1) clearly provides for a separate secretariat for each House of Parliament, explicitly laying the constitutional foundation for such bodies.– So, the existence of the Parliamentary Secretariats is constitutionally enshrined.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Each House—Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha—has its own independent secretariat as per Article 98(1).✔ However, the provision does allow for the creation of joint posts or common positions (shared roles) between the two Houses if necessary.– This means there is no “combined secretariat” as a rule, but shared roles may exist where explicitly created.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements with respect to the Lok Sabha (House of the People) are accurate?
The Lok Sabha functions as the Upper House of the Indian Parliament.
Members of the Lok Sabha are elected directly by citizens through a process based on universal adult suffrage (i.e., voting rights to all citizens aged 18+).
The first General Elections to elect the Lok Sabha were conducted during 1951–1952.
The tenure of the Lok Sabha, unless dissolved earlier, is five years from the date of its first sitting.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect:
The Lok Sabha is not the Upper House, but rather the Lower House of Parliament, as defined in Article 79 of the Constitution.
The Rajya Sabha serves as the Upper House, representing the states, while the Lok Sabha represents the people directly.
Statement 2 is Correct:
As per Article 81, the Lok Sabha is composed of members directly elected from constituencies based on adult suffrage—which means every Indian citizen aged 18 years or above has the right to vote.
The maximum strength permitted under the Constitution is 552 members, including representatives from both states and Union territories.
Statement 3 is Correct:
The first General Elections in India took place between October 25, 1951 and February 21, 1952.
The first elected Lok Sabha commenced from April 17, 1952.
Hence, this historical milestone marks the beginning of India’s parliamentary democracy in practice.
Statement 4 is Incorrect:
The term of the Lok Sabha is five years, but from the date of its first sitting, not from the date of election.
This is detailed in Article 83(2).
During a National Emergency, this term can be extended by Parliament for one year at a time, but not beyond six months after the Emergency ends.
QUESTION 3
With reference to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), consider the following statements:
The scheme was initially launched in 200 rural districts considered among the most backward, during the financial year 2001–02.
The programme was rolled out nationwide beginning in the financial year 2008–09.
The number of families receiving employment under MGNREGS has consistently increased each year from 2021–22 to 2024–25.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The MGNREGS was not launched in 2001–02. Instead, it was formally introduced in 2006–07, covering 200 backward districts in the first phase.– The programme was gradually expanded to cover 130 more districts in 2007–08, and eventually all districts by the next financial year.– The scheme guarantees a minimum of 100 days of wage employment per year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
Statement 2 is Correct: From the financial year 2008–09, the MGNREGS was made applicable across the entire country, extending its legal job guarantee to all rural districts, as envisioned under the MGNREGA Act, 2005.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The number of families availing work under MGNREGS has declined steadily after peaking in 2020–21, which saw record participation during the COVID-19 pandemic.– Data from the Ministry of Rural Development shows:
2021–22: 7.25 crore families
2022–23: 6.18 crore
2023–24: 5.99 crore
2024–25: 5.79 crore
– In fact, the scheme was suspended in West Bengal from March 2022 due to funding issues.
QUESTION 4
With reference to the adjournment of proceedings in the House of the People (Lok Sabha), consider the following statements:
An adjournment implies a suspension of the House’s business for an entire day, thereby halting its proceedings until the next scheduled sitting.
In the Lok Sabha, it is the Leader of the House who decides whether the House is adjourned sine die (without assigning a day for the next meeting), to another day, or even to a later hour on the same day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct:
The term "adjournment" refers to a temporary suspension of the House’s proceedings, usually for the rest of the day or till a fixed time.
In parliamentary context, when the House adjourns, it means the sitting is paused temporarily—typically until the next day or a predetermined hour.
So, when the House is adjourned for the day, it halts all legislative activity for that day, unless otherwise notified.
Statement 2 is Incorrect:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Leader of the House (usually the Prime Minister), has the constitutional and procedural authority to adjourn the House, whether:
sine die (i.e., without assigning a fixed date for resumption),
to a specific date or hour, or
even to a later part of the same day.
This is part of the Speaker’s powers to regulate the business and proceedings of the House under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the Vacation of seats in the Parliament?
(a) Article 99
(b) Article 100
(c) Article 101
(d) Article 102
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Article 101 of the Constitution of India provides for the Vacation of seats.
No person shall be a member of both Houses of Parliament and provision shall be made by Parliament by law for the vacation by a person who is chosen a member of both Houses of his seat in one House or the other.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following does NOT form part of the core mandates or features of the NITI Aayog as an institution of strategic policy planning?
Facilitating a shared national vision for development by involving both the Centre and the States in setting priorities and strategies.
Strengthening cooperative federalism by maintaining regular, structured interaction with State governments through institutional mechanisms.
Designing mechanisms for village-level planning and progressively integrating them into higher-level plans (district, state, national).
Incorporating national security considerations into economic policy-making — but only in areas specifically entrusted to it.
Directly disbursing financial resources to State governments for implementing development schemes and welfare programmes.
Select the correct code:
(a) 3 and 5 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: One of NITI Aayog’s key objectives is to create a shared national development vision through consultation with States.
This collaborative goal-setting ensures that planning is bottom-up, not just top-down.
Statement 2 is Correct: NITI Aayog actively promotes cooperative federalism, meaning it supports continuous Centre-State coordination and partnership, especially through platforms like the Governing Council.
Statement 3 is Correct: NITI Aayog aims to strengthen grassroots planning by developing tools for planning at the village level, and enabling their incremental aggregation into larger district, state, and national plans.
This bottom-up planning model enhances decentralised governance.
Statement 4 is Correct: NITI Aayog may examine national security aspects in economic policymaking, but only in areas referred to it specifically by the government.
This makes its role advisory and strategic, not operational in security matters.
Statement 5 is Incorrect: NITI Aayog is not a funding or grant-disbursing body.
Unlike the former Planning Commission, it does not allocate financial resources to States.
This responsibility now rests with the Ministry of Finance and is guided by the Finance Commission's recommendations.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following was not a requirement for an individual to be listed as a voter in the electoral rolls prepared for India’s first general election in 1952?
The individual had to be an Indian citizen living in a constituency demarcated after independence, as per the delimitation exercise.
The person had to be 21 years or older as of January 1, 1949, to be eligible to vote.
A minimum residency period of 180 days in a village or electoral unit in the year ending March 31, 1948, was required.
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: This statement is not true because the delimitation of constituencies had not yet been completed when the initial electoral rolls were being prepared.
Instead, rolls were created on a village-by-village basis, with the understanding that they would later be restructured into constituencies once delimitation was finalized.
Hence, residency was recorded locally, not constituency-wise.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: The minimum voting age for the 1952 elections was 21 years, not 18.
The 18-year threshold was introduced much later, through the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
For 1952, eligibility required voters to have turned 21 years old as of January 1, 1949.
Statement 3 is Correct: This was indeed a valid criterion: an individual had to have lived in a village or electoral unit for at least 180 days during the year ending March 31, 1948, to be eligible to vote.
This was to establish stable residency, ensuring voters had a genuine connection to their locality.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following provisions contribute to ensuring the independence and impartiality of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, as envisaged under Articles 148 to 151 of the Constitution?
The President of India appoints the CAG, giving the office high constitutional authority.
The CAG can only be removed through a special procedure similar to that of a Supreme Court judge, ensuring security of tenure.
The salary and administrative expenses of the CAG are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, meaning they are not subject to vote in Parliament.
The CAG is barred from holding any government office after retirement, preserving neutrality even after their term.
Select the correct code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: The CAG is appointed by the President under Article 148(1), which places the appointment beyond ordinary political interference and grants the office constitutional legitimacy.
Statement 2 is Correct: The removal process of the CAG mirrors that of a Supreme Court judge (Article 148(1) read with Article 124(4)), involving a special majority in both Houses of Parliament on grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
This ensures security of tenure, a hallmark of institutional independence.
Statement 3 is Correct: The salary, pensions, and administrative expenses of the CAG are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, meaning they are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament.
This prevents the executive from using financial control to influence the CAG’s functioning.
Statement 4 is Correct: After retirement, the CAG is prohibited from taking up any further office under the Government of India or any State Government, ensuring post-retirement neutrality and removing incentive for bias while in office.
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